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Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 100
Instructions:
Section – A
I. Choose the correct answers: ( 1 × 5 = 5 )
Question 1.
Economics is the study of mankind in _______ of life.
(a) the ordinary business
(b) the weekly business
(c) special business
(d) chance
Answer:
(a) the ordinary business.
Question 2.
Which method of collection of data gives better results?
(a) Census
(b) Sample survey
(c) Innovation
(d) Distribution
Answer:
(b) Sample survey.
Question 3.
Railway Transport introduced in India in the year
(a) 1835
(b) 1776
(c) 1850
(d) 1853
Answer:
(c) 1850.
Question 4.
Economic reforms were introduced during
(a) 1948
(b) 1956
(c) 1988
(d) 1991
Answer:
(d) 1991
Question 5.
The act provides guaranteed wage employment to every poor household for minimum of 100 days in year is called
(a) PMRY
(b) SJSRY
(c) MGNERAGA
(d) SGSY
Answer:
(c) MGNERAGA.
II. Fill in the blanks: ( 1 × 5 = 5 )
Question 6.
In Tabular presentation data is presented in _______.
Answer:
Table.
Question 7.
Index numbers are expressed in _______.
Answer:
Percentage.
Question 8.
Taxes on incomes of individuals is called _______.
Answer:
Direct tax.
Question 9.
Investment on Education is considered as one of the main sources of _______.
Answer:
Human capital.
Question 10.
Forest is _______ resource.
Answer:
Natural.
III. Match the following: ( 1 × 5 = 5 )
Question 11.
| A | B |
| 1. Census | 1. Food production |
| 2. Arithmetic Mean | 2. Gross Domestic Product |
| 3. World Bank | 3. \(\bar{X}\) |
| 4. Green Revolution | 4. India and knowledge economy |
| 5. GDP | 5. Covers every individual |
Answers:
1-5
2-3
3-4
4-1
5-2
IV. Answer the following questions in a word sentence: ( 1 × 5 = 5 )
Question 12.
What is dispersion?
Answer:
Dispersion refers to the extent to which values in a distribution differ from the average of the distribution.
Question 13.
What is correlation?
Answer:
Correlation studies and measures the direction and intensity of relationship among variables
Question 14.
Give the meaning of poverty.
Answer:
Poverty is a state of living where people are unable to get the basic necessities of life.
Question 15.
Expand NCERT.
Answer:
National Council of Educational Research and Training.
Question 16.
What is rural development?
Answer:
Rural development means improvement of the socioeconomic lives of rural people by providing basic infrastructures which make them to engage in productive activities. In simple words, the term rural development refers to the overall development of the rural economy.
Section – B
V. Answer any four of the following questions in four sentences each: ( 2 × 4 = 8 )
Question 17.
Mention the two source of data.
Answer:
Primary data and secondary data are the two sources of data.
Question 18.
What is quantitative classification? Give an example.
Answer:
Quantitative classification is that classification where certain characteristics are measured quantitatively. Example, age, height, production, income, etc.
Question 19.
Write the merits of arithmetic mean.
Answer:
The following are the merits of arithmetic mean:
Question 20.
Mention types of Correlation.
Answer:
There are two types of correlation negative correlation and positive correlation. Again they are classified perfect positive and perfect negative correlations.
Question 21.
What is Price Index Number? Mention its types.
Answer:
Price index numbers measure the general changes in prices between the current year and the base year. The general price index is used to measure the value of money. The following are the different types of price index numbers:
Question 22.
Write the first four steps in developing a project.
Answer:
Following are the four steps in developing a project:
VI. Answer any five of the following questions in four sentence each. ( 2 x 5 = 10 )
Question 23.
List out the important export goods of India before independence.
Answer:
The important export goods of India before independence were raw silk, cotton, wool, sugar, indigo, jute, etc.
Question 24.
Who are the urban poor? Give example.
Answer:
Urban poor are those who live in cities and towns without basic needs. Example: push cart, vendors, street cobblers, women who string flowers, rag pickers, vendors and beggars.
Question 25.
State the meaning of human capital.
Answer:
Human capital refers to that part of population which possesses skills, knowledge, education and experience. It also includes the ability of human beings to give their best and their ability to create economic value for things.
Question 26.
Name the institutional sources of rural credit.
Answer:
Question 27.
Who are self-employed ? Give two examples.
Answer:
The self-employed are those workers who own and operate an enterprise themselves to earn their livelihood. The best examples for self-employed are as follows:
Question 28.
Which are the economic infrastructure?
Answer:
The economic infrastructural facilities are those which directly contribute towards economic development. The ma in economic infrastructures are energy, transportations communication, banking. insurance, warehouse, etc.
Question 29.
Mention any four functions of environment.
Answer:
Environment refers to the totality of the physical conditions on the earth or a part of it. In other words, it refers to physical surroundings. conditions, circumstances. etc., in which a person lives.
Environment is defined as the total planetary inheritance and the totality of all resources and includes biotic (birds, animals and plants, forests, fishes) and a biotic (air, water, land, rocks and sunlight) factors.
Thy major functions of environment are as follows:
Section – C
VII. Answer any three of the following questions in twelve sentence each. ( 3 × 4 = 12 )
Question 30.
Briefly explain how statistics helps to study economics.
Answer:
Statistics plays a very important role in the field of economics. It helps in study of economics in many ways:
1. It helps to understand economic problems: By using various statistical tools, effort is being made to find the causes behind the economic problems with the help of qualitative and the quantitative facts. Once the causes of a problem are identified. it is easier to formulate certain policies to tackle them.
2. It enables an economist to present economic facts in a precise and definite form: Statistics help the economists to present economic facts with accuracy. It also helps in proper comprehension of that is stated in the subject matter. When economic facts are expressed in statistical terms. they become exact. Exact facts are more convincing than vague statements. For instance, saying 350 people have died in Kashmir unrest since 2000. is more accurate than saying that a lot of people have died in the unrest.
3. Helps in condensing mass data into a few numerical measures: Statistics condenses the mass data into a few numerical measures like mean, variance, correlation, etc. These numerical measures help to summarise data. For example, it would be impossible to remember the income of all the people of a country. But we can remember average income i.e., per capita income.
4. It is used to find relationships between different economic factors: An economist may be interested in finding out what happens to the demand for a commodity when its price changes or what will be impact on inflation, when the government has more budget deficits. Such situations can be dealt, if any relationship exists between the various economic factors. Here, the nature of relationship can be studied with the help of statistical tools.
5. It helps in formulation of plans and policies: Sometimes, formulating plans and policies require the knowledge of future trends. For instance, an economic planner has to decide in 2010 how much the economy should produce in 2016-17. In other words, one must know what could be the expected level of consumption in 2016-17. So. the statistical tools to predict consumption in 2016-17 could be based on the data of consumption of past years obtained by surveys.
Question 31.
Briefly explain sampling errors.
Answer:
Sampling error refers to the differences between the sample estimate and the actual value of a characteristic of the population. It is the error that occurs when you make an observation from the samples taken from the population.
Thus, the difference between the actual value of a parameter of the population and its estimate is the sampling error. It is possible to reduce the magnitude of sampling error by taking a larger sample.
For example, suppose the height of 5 students (in inches) are 50, 55, 60, 65, 70. Now, the average height will be calculated by adding all these observations and dividing the sum by 5 . then we get 60 inches. If we select a sample of two students with height of 50 and 60 inches, then average height of sample will be 50 + 60 divided by 2, we get 55 inches. Here the sampling error of the estimate will be 60 (true value) minus 55 (estimate) = 5.
Question 32.
Draw scatter diagram and conclude about correlation.
Answer:
Conclusion: There is a positive correlation between the X and Y variable.
Question 33.
Write a note on classification of data.
Answer:
The raw data is classified in various ways depending on the purpose. Generally data can be classified as follows:
Question 34.
Mention the difficulties in construction of Consumer Price Index.
Answer:
The following are the difficulties encountered during the construction of consumer price index:
VIII. Answer any four of the following questions in twelve sentence each. ( 4 × 4 = 16 )
Question 35.
The traditional handicraft industries were ruined under British rule.
Answer:
Yes, the traditional handicrafts industries were ruined under the British rule. The decline of the indigenous handicraft industries created not only massive unemployment in India but also a new demand in the Indian consumer market, which was now deprived of the supply of locally made goods.
The British imposed heavy duties on Indian handicrafts, so that they became more expensive than British woolen and silk manufacturers. They followed a policy of duty free export of raw materials and import of finished goods. Apart from these, Indian handicrafts had to face competition from machine made goods from Britain.
India could not develop a sound industrial base under the colonial rule. Even as the country’s world famous handicraft industries declined, no corresponding modern industrial base was allowed to come up to take pride of place so long enjoyed by the Indians.
The intention of British was to reduce India to the status of a mere exporter of important raw materials for the upcoming modem industries in Britain and to turn India into a market for their finished products of those industries, so that their continued expansion could be ensured to the maximum advantage of their home country.
Question 36.
Give the meaning and importance of small scale industries.
Answer:
A small scale industry’ is defined with reference to the maximum investment allowed on the assets of a production unit. A small scale industry is one where the investment is less than one crore rupees.
Small scale industries play a very important role in the economic development of India. It is a known fact that small scale industries are more labour intensive i.e., they use more labour than the large scale industries and therefore, generate more employment.
Apart from the above, the small scale industries require less capital as they are small units. They are free from industrial unrest. They also depend on indigenous resources and need not depend on foreign resources. Small scale industries were also given concessions like lower excise duty and bank loans at lower interest rates.
Question 37.
Briefly explain the financial sector reforms.
Answer:
The financial sector consists of financial institutions like commercial banks, investment banks, stock exchange operations and foreign exchange market. The financial sector in India is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The RBI decides the amount of money that the banks can keep with themselves, fixes interest rates, nature of lending to various sectors, etc.
The major objective of financial sector reforms is to reduce the role of RBI from regulator to facilitator of financial sector. That means, the financial sector ma be allowed to take decisions on many matters independent of RBI.
The financial sector reform policies led to the establishment of private sector banks both Indian and foreign. Foreign investment limit in banks was raised to around 50%. The banks which fulfill certain conditions have been given freedom to set up new branches without the approval of the RBI. Foreign institutional investors (Fill) like merchant bankers, mutual funds and pension funds are now allowed lo invest in Indian financial markets.
Question 38.
Explain the drawbacks of agricultural marketing.
Answer:
Agricultural marketing is a process that involves the assembling, storage. processing. transportation, packaging, grading and distribution of different agricultural commodities across the country. The major drawbacks of agriculture marketing in India are as follows:
Question 39.
Briefly explain the importance of infrastructure in India.
Answer:
The infrastructure helps the modern economy as follows:
The agriculture and other industries largely depend on infrastructure. Transportation of seeds, pesticides, fertilizers and the produce using modern roadways, railways and shipping facilities help in development of agriculture which leads to development of an economy:
Question 40.
What are the various indicators of Human Development?
Answer:
The various indicators of human development are as follows:
Section – D
IX. Answer any two of the following questions in about twenty sentence each. ( 2 × 6 = 12 )
Question 41.
What is tabulation? What are the parts of table? Explain.
Answer:
When data is represented in rows and columns, it is called tabulation. To construct a table, it is important to know the different components of a good statistical table. When all the components are put together systematically, they form a table.
Tabulation can be done using one way, two way or three way classification depending upon the number of characteristics involved. A good table should have the following parts:
Question 42.
Calculate mode from the following distribution :
| Daily wages | No. of workers |
| 10 – 20 | 7 |
| 20 – 30 | 11 |
| 30 – 40 | 18 |
| 40 – 50 | 12 |
| 50 – 60 | 9 |
| 60 – 70 | 6 |
Answer:
| Daily wages ( x) | No of workers (f) |
|
10 – 20 |
7 11 |
| 30 – 40 | 18 |
| 40 – 50 50 – 60 60 – 70 |
12 |
By seeing the frequency column, we can make out that the class interval 30-40 is considered as the modal group. To find out exact mode the following formula is used.
M0 = L + \(\frac{\mathrm{D}_{1}}{\mathrm{D}_{1}+\mathrm{D}_{2}}\) × h
M0 = 30 + \(\frac{7}{7+6}\) × h
M0= 30 + \(\frac{7}{13}\) × 10
M0 = 30 + \(\frac{70}{13}\)
M0= 30 + 5.38
M0 = 35.38
Question 43.
Calculate the correlation coefficient from following data:
Answer:
Calculate correlation coefficient from following data:
X. Answer any two of the following questions in about twenty sentence each. ( 2 × 6 = 12 )
Question 44.
Explain the important areas of liberalization.
Answer:
Liberalization was one of the reforms of New Economic Policy of 1991. It was introduced to put an end to the restrictions and open up various sectors of the economy. The following are the important areas of liberalization:
1. Deregulation of industrial sector: The liberalization policy removed many restrictions enforced on industrial sector. Industrial licensing was abolished for almost all but product categories like alcohol, cigarettes, hazardous chemicals, industrial explosives, electronics, aerospace and drugs and pharmaceuticals.
The only industries which are not reserved for the public sector are defence equipments, atomic energy generation and railway transport. Many goods produced by the small scale industries have now been de-reserved.
2. Financial sector reforms: The financial sector consists of financial institutions like commercial banks, investment banks, stock exchange operations and foreign exchange market.
The financial sector in India is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The RBI decides the amount of money that the banks can keep with themselves, fixes interest rates, nature of lending to various sectors, etc.
The major objective of financial sector reforms is to reduce the role of RBI from regulator to facilitator of financial sector. That means, the financial sector may be allowed to take decisions on many matters independent of RBI.
The financial sector reform policies led to the establishment of private sector banks both Indian and foreign. Foreign investment limit in banks was raised to around 50%. The banks which fulfill certain conditions have been given freedom to set up new branches without the approval of the RBI. Foreign Institutional Investors (FIT) like merchant bankers, mutual funds and pension funds are now allowed to invest in Indian financial markets.
3. Tax reforms: These are the reforms which are concerned with government’s taxation and public expenditure policies which are collectively known as its fiscal policy. There are two types of taxes, direct and indirect.
Since 1991, there has been a continuous reduction in the taxes on individual incomes as it was felt that high rates of income tax were an important reason for tax evasion. It is now widely accepted that moderate rates of income tax encourage savings and voluntary disclosure of income.
The rate of corporation tax (tax on income of companies) which was very high earlier has been gradually reduced. A new tax called Goods and Services Tax (GST) has been introduced from 1.7.2017 to bring uniformity in indirect taxes.
In order to encourage better compliance on the part of tax payers, many procedures have been simplified and the rates also substantially lowered.
4. Foreign exchange reforms: During 1991, the Government took an immediate measure to resolve the balance of payments crisis, the rupee was devalued against foreign currencies. This led to an increase in the inflow of foreign exchange. It also set the tone to free the determination of rupee value in the foreign exchange market from government control. At present, the market forces i.e., demand and supply, determine the exchange rates.
5. Trade and investment policy reforms: A new trade and investment policy under liberalization strategy was made to increase international competitiveness of industrial production and a foreign investments and technology into the economy. The aim was also to promote the efficiency of the local industries and the adoption of modem technologies.
To protect Indian industries, the government was following quantitative restrictions on imports which encouraged tight control over imports. At the same time, tariffs were very high. These policies reduced efficiency and competitiveness which led to a slower growth of manufacturing sector.
The main objectives of Trade and Investment Policy were:
Import licensing was abolished except in case of hazardous and environmentally sensitive industries. Quantitative restrictions on imports of manufactured consumer goods and agricultural products were also fully removed. Export duties have been removed to increase the competitive position of Indian goods in the international markets. A process of disinvestment was also initiated by selling of part of equity shares of public sector enterprises to the public.
Question 45.
Discuss the following as a source of Human Capital Formation.
(1) Expenditure of Education
(2) Expenditure on Health.
Answer:
1. Health infrastructure: The various forms of health expenditures are as follows:
The healthy individuals are a food source of human capital as they directly contribute for regular and higher productivity of labour. A sick labourer without access to medical facilities has to remain absent from work. This leads to loss of productivity. Hence, expenditure on health is an important source of human capital formation.
2. Expenditure on migration: People migrate from their native places in search of jobs which may bring higher salaries. Unemployment is the only reason for rural-urban migration in India. Technically qualified persons like engineers and doctors migrate to other countries to earn better income.
Though there is a high cost of transport, high cost of living and other factors, the enhanced income will motivate people to migrate. Hence, expenditure on migration is also a source of human capital formation.
Question 46.
What are the main causes of unemployment In India?
Answer:
The main causes for unemployment in India are as follows:
1. Population explosion: Rapid population growth is the leading factor responsible for unemployment in India. This has adversely affected the unemployment situation in two ways. Firstly, the growth of population has directly encouraged unemployment by making a large addition to the existing labour force. Secondly, the rate of job expansion could never be as high as the population growth would have required.
2. Season agricultural and backwardness of agricultural: In rural economy, agriculture is the main source of employment. However, most of the rural people are engaged directly and indirectly in agricultural operations. But, agriculture in India is basically a seasonal occupation. It provides employment only for certain months i.e., only during rainy days. During the rest of the period in a year, people would become unemployed.
3. Illiteracy and ignorance: Many people are illiterates and unskilled. They are not trained in accordance with the employment being generated. There is miss-match between the education industry and employment industry.
4. Slow growth: The growth of Indian economy is not at the expected level. The growth of GDP is still less than 7%. That means income which is being contributed to the national income generated through creation of employment opportunities is insufficient.
5. Lack of initiatives from government: In India, the government is inactive in creation of jobs. Rather, the government is indulging in disinvestment and closing Public Sector Industries due to industrial sickness. This is aggravating the problem of unemployment.
6. Low investment: There is a decline in the rate of investment due to lack of supportive atmosphere both in private and public sectors. This has slowed down the creation of new employment opportunities in India.
7. Orthodox nature of population: In India, majority of people are traditional and very orthodox and believe in blind beliefs. Many will be sticking on to some age old occupation even many though it has lost scope in the modem word. This has made them voluntarily unemployed.
XI. Answer any two of the following project oriented questions. ( 2 × 5 = 10 )
Question 47.
Suppose you are a research student and you are asked to conduct a sample survey about the midday meals program in schools prepare a good questionnaire to support your survey.
Answer:
Question 48.
Suppose you are a resident of a village. Suggest a few measures to tackle the problem of poverty.
Answer:
If we support ¡n implementing the following programmes successfully we can easily eradicate the poverty:
Question 49.
Identify the formal and informal sectors given in the list.
(a) Agricultural labourers
(b) Street vendor
(c) Petty shop owner
(d) Bank employee
(e) Teacher
(f) Saloon shop owner.
Answer:
(a) Agricultural labourers – informal worker
(b) Street vendor – informal worker
(c) Petty shop owner – informal worker
(d) Bank employee – formal worker
(e) Teacher – formal worker
(f) Saloon shop owner – informal workers
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Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 100
Instructions:
Section – A
I. Choose the correct answers: ( 1 × 5 = 5 )
Question 1.
Alternative uses of resources give rise to the problem of
(a) Rights
(b) Price
(c) Choice
(d) Chance
Answer:
(c) Choice.
Question 2.
O gives can be helpful in locating graphically.
(a) Mode
(b) Mean
(c) Median
(d) none of these
Answer:
(C) Median.
Question 3.
Railway transport introduced in India in the year.
(a)1835
(b)1776
(c)1850
(d)1853
Answer:
(e) 1850.
Question 4.
Poverty line separates
(a) Poor and non-poor
(b) Rich and non-rich
(c) Poor and weak
(d) Non of the above
Answer:
(a) Poor and non-poor
Question 5.
GDP stands for
(a) Gross Domestic Product
(b) Gross Domestic price
(c) Dollar price
(d) None f the above
Answer:
(a) Gross Domestic Product.
II. Fill in the blanks: ( 1 × 5 = 5 )
Question 6.
In tabular presentation, data is presented in ________________.
Answer:
Table.
Question 7.
Inflation affects the _________________ of common people.
Answer:
Cost of living.
Question 8.
Reforms were introduced during _______________.
Answer:
1991.
Question 9.
Indian system of Medicine includes __________________ systems.
Answer:
Six.
Question 10.
Forests are ____________________ resources.
Answer:
Natural.
III. Match the following: ( 1 × 5 = 5 )
Question 11.
| A | B |
| 1. Pilot Survey | 1. India and the knowledge economy |
| 2. Weighted Arithmetic Mean | 2. Fruit Production |
| 3. Prime Minister | 3. Pre-testing of questionnaire |
| 4. World Bank | 4. Chairperson of the Planning Commission |
| 5. Golden Revolution | 5. Weights given to relative importance |
Answers:
1-3
2-5
3-4
4-1
5-2
IV. Answer the following questions in a word sentence: ( 1 × 5 = 5 )
Question 12.
Give the meaning of Standard deviation.
Answer:
Standard deviation is the positive square root of the mean of squared deviations from mean.
Question 13.
What is a project?
Answer:
A project is a well thought out action plan designed to attain predetermined objectives.
Question 14.
Give the meaning of infant mortality rate.
Answer:
Infant mortality rate is the death of babies per thousand live births.
Question 15.
Expand I.L.O.
Answer:
International Labour Organisation.
Question 16.
Which country has the highest life expectancy.
Answer:
China.
Section – B
V. Answer any four of the following questions in four sentence each. ( 2 × 4 = 8 )
Question 17.
Mention the two sources of data.
Answer:
Primary data and secondary data are the two sources of data.
Question 18.
Differentiate between inclusive and exclusive methods of classification.
Answer:
Exclusive method: Under this method. the classes are formed in such a way that the upper class limit of one class will be equal to the lower class limit of the next class. Here the continuity of the data is maintained. This method is most suitable in case of data of a continuous variable. For example, among class intervals 10-20 and 20-30, 20 is included in the next class interval i.e., 20-30 and not in 10-20.
Inclusive method: Under this method, upper class limit is included in a class interval. So here, both upper class limit and lower class limit are parts of the class interval.
In the above example, if we take the class interval 10-19, the lower limit, 10 and the upper 19 are included in the class interval 10-19. If we consider the class intervals as marks of students, the marks scored by students between 10 and 19 falls in this class interval. If a student secures 20, it falls in the next class interval.
Question 19.
How can you obtain an Arithmetic line graph?
Answer:
In an arithmetic line graph. time is plotted along the x-axis and the value of the variable is measured in y-axis. A Line graph is constructed by joining the plotted points to get the arithmetic line graph. It helps in understanding the trend, periodicity etc., in a long term time series data.
Question 20.
Calculate the value of Median from the following figures.
X: 5 7 9 12 11 8 7 15 25
Answer:
We need to put in ascending order
Question 21.
Mention which type of correlation is associated with
(a) Production and Price of Vegetable.
(b) Temperature and sale of ice creams.
Answer:
(a) There is a negative correlation between production and price of vegetables. If the production of vegetables increases, which leads to increase in supply, it will result in decrease in price of vegetables.
(b) There is a positive correlation between temperature and sale of ice creams. If the temperature increases, there will be an increase in the sales of ice creams and vice versa.
Question 22.
Mention the name of any four Statistical tools.
Answer:
Following are the four steps in developing a project:
VI. Answer any five of the following questions in four sentence each. ( 2 × 5 = 10 )
Question 23.
List out the important export goods of India before Independence.
Answer:
The important export goods of India before independence were raw silk, cotton, wool, sugar, indigo, jute. etc.
Question 24.
List out the features of poorest households.
Answer:
Starvation and hunger are the main features of the poorest households. They do not possess any assets. They live in slums and some sleep in public places. In rural areas, they are landless labourers. Many do not get even two meals a day. They lack basic literacy and skills and have limited economic opportunities.
Question 25.
Bring out the difference between human capital and human development.
Answer:
| Human Capital | Human Development |
| 1. It means investing in human beings as we do in physical capital in order to get future returns in the form of higher productivity and earnings. | 1. It refers to the overall development of human beings which includes political and economic, social, spiritual aspects of their living. |
| 2. It considers education and health as the means to increase labour productivity. | 2. It is based on the idea that education & health are integral to human well being. |
| 3. It treats human beings as a means to an end, the end being the increase in productivity. | 3. It treats human beings as ends themselves. |
| 4. It is a narrow concept | 4. It is a broader concept. |
Question 26.
Name the institutional sources of rural credit.
Answer:
Question 27.
Who are all included in labour force?
Answer:
All those who are engaged in economic activities, in what ever capacity-high or low are called workers. Even if some of them temporarily abstain from work due to illness, injury or other physical disability. bad weather, festivals, social or religious functions are also workers. Apart from these, the labour force also consists of those who help the main workers and the self employed workers.
Question 28.
Which are the health indicators?
Answer:
The main health indicators are as follows:
Question 29.
Write any two threats to environment in our country.
Answer:
The major threats of environment in India are as follows:
Section – C
VII. Answer any three of the following questions in twelve sentence each. ( 3 × 4 = 12 )
Question 30.
Scarcity is the root of all economic problems explain the statement.
Answer:
It is true that the scarcity is the root of all economic problems. If there had been no scarcity there would have been no economic problem. This would have not necessitated the study of economics.
In our daily life, we face various forms of scarcity. The queues at the railway booking counters, over crowded buses, heavy traffic on roads, the rush to get a ticket to watch a movie of a popular film actor or actress, are all the manifestations of scarcity. We face scarcity because the things that satisfy our wants are limited in availability.
Further, the resources which the producers have are limited and also have alternative uses. For instance, take the case of food that we eat everyday. It satisfies our want of nourishment. Farmers employed in agriculture grow crops that produce our food. At any point of time, the resources in agriculture like land, labour, water, chemical fertilizers, etc, all these resources have alternative uses.
The same resources can be used in the production of non-food crops. Thus, alternative uses of resources give rise to the problem of choice between different commodities that can be produced by those resources.
Question 31.
Briefly explain sampling errors.
Answer:
Sampling error refers to the differences between the sample estimate and the actual value of a characteristic of the population. It is the error that occurs when you make an observation from the samples taken from the population.
Thus, the difference between the actual value of a parameter of the population and its estimate is the sampling error. It is possible to reduce the magnitude of sampling error by taking a larger sample.
For example, suppose the height of 5 students (in inches) are 50, 55, 60, 65, 70. Now, the average height will be calculated by adding all these observations and dividing the sum by 5 . then we get 60 inches. If we select a sample of two students with height of 50 and 60 inches, then average height of sample will be 50 + 60 divided by 2, we get 55 inches. Here the sampling error of the estimate will be 60 (true value) minus 55 (estimate) = 5.
Question 32.
Draw scatter diagram and interpret.
Answer:
Interpretation: There is a perfect positive correlation between X and Y.
Question 33.
Write a note on classification of data.
Answer:
The raw data is classified in various ways depending on the purpose. Generally data can be classified as follows:
Question 34.
The yield of wheat production per acre for 10 districts of a state is under.
Calculate Quartile Deviation (Q.D)
Answer:
Q.D for Wheat:
First we need to arrange the observations in the ascending order
x: 9 10 10 12 15 16 18 19 21 25
Calculation of lower quartile (Q1):
Q1 = size of \(\left(\frac{N}{4}\right)^{t h}\) item = size of \(\left(\frac{10+1}{4}\right)^{\text {th }}\) item
= The size of \(\left(\frac{11}{4}\right)^{\mathrm{th}}\) item i.e., 2.75th item
The size of 2.75th item is size of 2nd item + 0.75 item
Size of 2nd item = 10
Size of 0.75 item = Size of 3rd item – 2nd item
= 10 – 10 = 0
Q1 = size of 2nd item + 0.75 item is
Q1 = 10 + 0.75 (10 – 10) = 10 + O.75(0)
= 10 + 0
Q1 = 10
Calculation of Upper Quartile (Q3):
Q3 = Size of 3\(\left(\frac{N+1}{4}\right)^{t h}\) item
= Size of (\(\frac{3(10+1)^{\text {th }}}{4}\)) item = Size of \(\left(\frac{3(11)}{4}\right)^{t h}\) item
= Size of \(\left(\frac{33}{4}\right)^{\text {th }}\) item = size of 8.25 item
i.e.. size of 8th item + 0.25 item (size of 9th – 8th item)
Q3 = 19 + 0.25 (21 – 19) = 19 + 0.25(2)
Q3 = 19 + 0.5
Q3 = 19.5
Now QD = \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}_{3}-\mathrm{Q}_{1}}{2}=\frac{19.5-10}{2}=\frac{9.5}{2}=4.75\)
QD = 4.75 tonnes
VIII. Answer any four of the following questions in twelve sentence each. ( 4 × 4 = 16 )
Question 35.
Indicate the volume and direction of foreign trade at the time of Indian Independence.
Answer:
The volume of foreign trade includes the quantities of goods and services which w ere being exported and imported. The direction of trade refers to the countries which were involved during British rule. The volume and direction of India’s foreign trade at the time of independence is as follows:
During the regime of colonial government, India became an exporter of primary goods like raw silk, cotton, wool, sugar, raw jute etc., and an importer of finished consumer goods like ‘ cotton, silk and woolen clothes and capital goods like light machineries produced by the factories at Britain.
Britain had maintained monopoly over India’s exports and imports. As a result, more than half of India’s foreign trade was restricted to Britain, while the rest was allowed with a few other countries like China, Srilanka, Iran, etc. The opening of the Suez Canal further intensified British control over India’s foreign trade.
Question 36.
Give the meaning and the importance of Small-scale industries.
Answer:
A small scale industry is defined with reference to the maximum investment allowed on the assets of a production unit. A small scale industry is one where the investment is less than one crore rupees.
Small scale industries play a very important role in the economic development of India. It is a known fact that small scale industries are more labour intensive i.e., they use more labour than the large scale industries and therefore, generate more employment.
Apart from the above, the small scale industries require less capital as they are small units. They are free from industrial unrest. They also depend on indigenous resources and need not depend on foreign resources. Small scale industries were also given concessions like lower
excise duty and bank loans at lower interest rates.
Question 37.
Briefly explain the background of economic reforms in India.
Answer:
There was a financial crisis which persisted since 1980. We know that to introduce various policies, the government has to generate funds from various sources like taxation, running public sector enterprises etc. When the expenditure is more than the income, the government takes loans to balance the deficit from banks and also from people within the country and from international banks.
The various development policies require huge finance. But there was scarcity of funds. Even though the revenues were very low, the government had to overshoot its revenue to meet the challenges like unemployment, poverty and population explosion. The continued spending on development programmes of the government did not generate additional revenue.
At the same time, the government could not generate funds internally. When the government was spending a large share of its income on areas which do not provide immediate returns, there was a need to use the rest of its revenue in a highly efficient manner. The income from public sector undertakings was also not very high to meet the growing expenditure.
Further, the foreign exchange, borrowed from other countries and international banks was spent on meeting consumption needs. No sincere efforts were made to reduce expenditure and to increase our exports.
During late 1980’s government expenditure exceeded its income. Prices of many essential goods increased. Imports grew at a very large extent. Foreign exchange reserves declined considerably and the same fall short to finance our imports for more than two weeks. There was shortage of funds even to pay interest to international lenders and at the same time no country or international bank was ready to lend any more to India.
At this situation, India approached the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development and International Monetary Fund and received seven billion dollars as loan to manage the crisis. To avail loans, these international banks expected India to liberalise and open up its economy by removing restrictions on the private sector, reduce the role of government in many areas and remove trade restrictions between India and other countries. India had to agree to these conditions of IBRD and IMF and announced the new economic policy which included liberalization, privatization and globalization.
Question 38.
Write a short note on alternative markets.
Answer:
The examples for emerging alternate marketing channels are as follows:
1. Farmers directly sell their agricultural produce to consumers. Example: Apni Mandi in Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan, Rythu Bazars (vegetables and fruits markets) in Andhra Pradesh, Uzhavar Sandhai – (a farmers market) in Tamil Nadu.
2. Agricultural contracts several domestic and multinational companies entering agreements with Indian farmers in which farmers are encouraged to grow farm products (vegetables and-fruits) of desired quality by providing them with not only seeds and other inputs but also assured procurement of the produce at predecided prices.
The main benefits of alternative agricultural marketing channels are:
Question 39.
Briefly explain the state of infrastructure in rural India.
Answer:
Majority of people in India live in rural areas. In spite of so much of technological progress in the world, rural women are still using bio-fuels like agricultural waste, dried dung and fire wood to meet their energy requirement. They have to walk long distances to bring fuel, water and other basic needs.
According to the latest estimates, in rural India only 56% of households have electricity connection and 43% still ties kerosene. About 90% of the rural households use bio- fuels for cooking. Tap water availability is limited to only 24 % rural households. About 76 % of the population drinks water from open sources like wells, tanks, ponds, lakes, rivers, canals etc. Access to improved sanitation in rural areas only 20 %.
Question 40.
Write about the various indicators of Human development.
Answer:
The various indicators of human development are as follows:
Section – D
IX. Answer any two of the following questions in about twenty sentence each. ( 2 × 6 = 12 )
Question 41.
What is Component Bar Diagram? Draw a component bar diagram with the help of following table. Enrollment by gender at schools (%) of children aged 6-14 years in a District of Bihar.
Answer:
Component bar diagrams or charts also called sub diagrams, are very useful in comparing the sizes of different component parts and also for throwing light on the relationship among these integral parts.
Question 42.
Calculate Q1, Q2, and Q3 from following data.
15, 21, 26, 30, 40, 45, 50, 54, 60, 65, 70
Answer:
(For blind students only)
What is Tabulation? What are the parts of a table? Explain.
Answer:
When data is represented in rows and columns, it is called tabulation. To construct a table, it is important to know the different components of a good statistical table. When all the components are put together systematically, they form a table.
Tabulation can be done using one way, two way or three way classification depending upon the number of characteristics involved. A good table should have the following parts:
Question 43.
The yield of wheat per acre for 10 districts of a state is as under.
Calculate Standard Deviation and Coefficient Variation.
Answer:
X. Answer any two of the following questions in about twenty sentence each. ( 2 × 6 = 12 )
Question 44.
Briefly explain the important area of liberalization.
Answer:
Liberalisation was one of the reforms of New Economic Policy of 1991. It was introduced to put an end to the restrictions and open up various sectors of the economy. The following are the important areas of liberalization:
1. Deregulation of industrial sector: The liberalization policy removed many restrictions enforced on industrial sector. Industrial licensing was abolished for almost all but product categories like alcohol, cigarettes, hazardous chemicals, industrial explosives, electronics, aerospace and drugs and pharmaceuticals.
The only industries which are not reserved for the public sector are defence equipments, atomic energy generation and railway transport. Many goods produced by the small scale industries have now been dereserved.
2. Financial sector reforms: The financial sector consists of financial institutions like commercial banks, investment banks, stock exchange operations and foreign exchange market.
The financial sector in India is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The RBI decides the amount of money that the banks can keep with themselves, fixes interest rates, nature of lending to various sectors, etc.
The major objective of financial sector reforms is to reduce the role of RBI from regulator to facilitator of financial sector. That means, the financial sector may be allowed to take decisions on many matters independent of RBI.
The financial sector reform policies led to the establishment of private sector banks both Indian and foreign. Foreign investment limit in banks was raised to around 50%. The banks which fulfill certain conditions have been given freedom to set up new branches without the approval of the RBI. Foreign institutional investors (FIT) like merchant bankers, mutual funds and pension funds are now allowed to invest in Indian financial markets.
3. Tax reforms: These are the reforms which are concerned with government’s taxation and public expenditure policies which are collectively known as its fiscal policy. There are two types of taxes, direct and indirect.
Since 1991, there has been a continuous reduction in the taxes on individual incomes as it was felt that high rates of income tax were an important reason for tax evasion. It is now widely accepted that moderate rates of income tax encourage savings and voluntary disclosure of income.
The rate of corporation tax (tax on income of companies) which was very high earlier has been gradually reduced. A new tax called Goods and Services Tax (GST) has been introduced from 1.7.2017 to bring uniformity in indirect taxes.
In order to encourage better compliance on the part of tax payers, many procedures have been simplified and the rates also substantially lowered.
4. Foreign exchange reforms: During 1991, the Government took an immediate measure to resolve the balance of payments crisis, the rupee was devalued against foreign currencies. This led to an increase in the inflow of foreign exchange. It also set the tone to free the determination of rupee value in the foreign exchange market from government control. At present, the market forces i.e., demand and supply, determine the exchange rates.
5. Trade and investment policy reforms: A new trade and investment policy under liberalization strategy was made to increase international competitiveness of industrial production and a foreign investments and technology into the economy. The aim was also to promote the efficiency of the local industries and the adoption of modem technologies.
To protect Indian industries, the government was following quantitative restrictions on imports which encouraged tight control over imports. At the same time, tariffs were very high. These policies reduced efficiency and competitiveness which led to a slower growth of manufacturing sector.
The main objectives of Trade and Investment Policy were:
Import licensing was abolished except in case of hazardous and environmentally sensitive industries. Quantitative restrictions on imports of manufactured consumer goods and agricultural products were also fully removed. Export duties have been removed to increase the competitive position of Indian goods in the international markets. A process of disinvestment was also initiated by selling of part of equity shares of public sector enterprises to the public.
Question 45.
Examine the role of education in the economic development of a nation.
Answer:
The education plays a predominant role in economic development of India in the following way:
1. It modernizes the attitude and behaviour of the people: Education brings favourable changes in the attitude and behaviour of people. It gives inputs like what is right and what is wrong and contributes for taking sound and and able judgments.
2. Promotes science and technology: Education always provides the knowledge about latest technology to people who know reading and writing. It explains the new methods of production through innovations in various sectors of the economy. They providing scope for latest techniques of production, it develops agriculture, industry, transport. power, etc.
3. Increases mobility of labours: Education helps the labourers to search for more re warding employment opportunities all over the world. It helps to chooses a suitable career according to one’s educational qualifications. It makes them to move from country to country or state to state as and when required.
4. Creates national and developmental consciousness: Education creates civic, national and developmental consciousness among the literates. It provides information about the past events in History and tells about the freedom struggle of great national leaders like Mahatma Gandhi, Bhagath Singh, Subhas Chandra Bose and others. It makes people to develop a sense of patriotism and helps them to adopt strategies of progress in life.
5. Contributes to skilled and trained workers: Education generates skilled and trained labour force needed for the development of the country. Education includes both general and technical education. The general education includes Bachelor of Arts. Bachelor of Commerce.
Bachelor in Business Administration, etc. at the degree level and technical education includes Bachelor in Engineering in different streams like mechanical, civil, electronic, electrical, computer. etc. All these contribute for the supply of skilled labour for the overall development of the country.
6. Act as source of knowledge: Education is a house of knowledge for all purposes. Anything to know we need to be literate. It helps people to take decisions on the basis of their knowledge gained in different stages while getting education.
7. Develops moral values: As education provides number of stories and incidents people’s lives, people can definitely develop moral values. These moral values are included in their daily life. Some of the moral values are not to sell adulterated products, in case of seller and in case of buyer, not to create inconvenience for others in their routine life and so on.
8. Creates awareness about culture and politics: Education always provides complete information about cultural heritage of any nation. It explains how they are constructed with the investment of money and human capital. It helps them to preserve the historical monuments, inscriptions and other valuable items. It also provides day-to-day information about politics when the person is literate.
Question 46.
What are the types of Unemployment in India? Discuss any two.
Answer:
The kinds of unemployment are as follows:
1. Disguised unemployment: It is the of unemployment, where we can come across excess number of workers engaged in the some work hut actually less number of workers required. For instance, suppose a farmer has four acres of land and he actually needs only two workers and half to carry out various operations on his farm in a year, but if he employs five workers and his family members such as his wife and children, this situation is called disguised unemployment.
2. Seasonal unemployment: It is the type of unemployment, where the rural people get employment only during a particular season. We have noticed that many people migrate to urban areas, pick up a job and stay there for some time, but come back to their home villages as soon as the rainy season begins.
This is because work in agriculture is seasonal: there are not many employment opportunities in a village for all the months in a year. When there is no work to do on farms, people go to urban areas and look for temporary jobs. This is one of the instances of seasonal unemployment.
Section – E
XI. Answer any two of the following project oriented questions. ( 2 × 5 = 10 )
Question 47.
Record the daily expenditure quantities bought and prices paid per unit of the daily purchases such as Rice, Toordal, tomato, Onion and milk of your family for two weeks. How has the price change affected your family?
Answer:
The following table shows the list of items with quantities purchased by a family:
Now we need to calculate CPI by calculating price relative with the help of formulae.
Calculation of Living Index or Consumer Price Index is calculated as follows:
\(\mathrm{CPI}=\frac{\Sigma \mathrm{WP}}{\Sigma \mathrm{W}}=\frac{1600}{15}=106.66\)
CPI = 106.66
Comment: It shows that there is an increase in price by 6.66%, which has a little effect on standard of living.
Question 48.
Suppose you are a resident of a village, suggest a few measures to tackle the problem of poverty.
Answer:
If we support in implementing the following programmes successfully, we can easily eradicate the poverty:
Question 49.
Prepare a list of causes of land degradation in India.
Answer:
Land in India suffers from varying degrees and types of degradation. These are increasing mainly due to the factors:
Students can Download 1st PUC Biology Model Question Paper 3 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Biology Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.
Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 70
General Instructions:
Part – A
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence each: ( 10 × 1 = 10 )
Question 1.
Define species
Answer:
Group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities.
Question 2.
Define phyllotaxy.
Answer:
The pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem or branch.
Question 3.
Define tissue.
Answer:
A group of cells having common origin and performing common function.
Question 4.
What are polysomes?
Answer:
Series of ribosomes attached to single mRNA to form a chain.
Question 5.
Why mitosis is called equational division?
Answer:
Since chromosome number remains constant from parent cell to daughter cell
Question 6.
What is cell cycle?
Answer:
A sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesis of other constituents and eventually divides into two daughter cells.
Question 7 .
Define osmosis.
Answer:
The diffusion of water across a differentially or semipermeable membrane.
Question 8.
Name the nodule forming bacteria in leguminous plant
Answer:
Rhizobium.
Question 9.
Name structural functional unit of kidney
Answer:
Nephron.
Question 10.
Name the locomotary structures of Hydra.
Answer:
Tentacles
Part – B
Answer any five of the following questions in 3-5 sentence each. Wherever applicable: ( 5 × 2 = 10 )
Question 11.
Name the algal and fungal components of Lichens.
Answer:
Question 12.
Write the modification of birds for flight.
Answer:
Question 13.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of areolar tissue.
Answer:
Question 14.
Mention types of chromosomes based on position of the centromere.
Answer:
Question 15.
Mention the significance of meiosis
Answer:
Question 16.
Name the technique of growing plant in soil free nutrient solution. Who discovered it?
Answer:
Question 17.
Distinguish differentiation from de-differentiation.
Answer:
Question 18.
Discus the role of ADH in urine formation.
Answer:
Part – C
Answer any five of the following questions in about 40-80 words each wherever applicable: ( 5 × 3 = 5 )
Question 19.
Write the universal rule of nomenclature
Answer:
Question 20.
Mention types of flower based on position of the ovary.
Answer:
Question 21.
Draw neat labelled diagram of stomal apparatus
Answer:
Question 22.
What are micro nutrients? Mention any four.
Answer:
Question 23.
Discuss any three role of auxins.
Answer:
Question 24.
Explain the carbohydrate digestion in intestine.
Answer:
Question 25.
Explain the transport of Carbon dioxide by blood.
Answer:
Question 26.
Write the difference between cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle.
Answer:
Cardiac Muscle
Skeletal Muscle
Part – D
Section – I
Answer any four of the following question in about 200-250 words each, wherever applicable: ( 4 x 5 = 20 )
Question 27.
List the salient features of Bryophyta.
Answer:
Question 28.
Write the general characters of phylum Annelida.
Answer:
Question 29.
Explain the morphological features of Cockroach
Answer:
Question 30.
Draw a neat labeled diagram of plant cell.
Answer:
<
Question 31.
Explain the classification enzymes.
Answer:
Question 32.
Explain Double circulation.
Answer:
Section – II
Answer any three of the following questions in about 200-250 words each, wherever applicable: ( 3 x 5 = 15 )
Question 33.
Explain the mechanism of ascent of sap
Answer:
Question 34.
Write schematic representation of Calvin cycle
Answer:
Question 35.
a. Briefly explain alcoholic fermentation
Answer:
b. What is RQ? Name the respiratory substrate whose RQ value is 1.
Answer:
Question 36.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of Neuron.
Answer:
Question 37.
List any five hormones of pituitary gland and write one function of each.
Answer:
Students can Download 1st PUC Biology Model Question Paper 2 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Biology Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.
Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 70
General Instructions:
Part – A
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence each: ( 10 x 1 = 10 )
Question 1.
Define a Taxon.
Answer:
Any unit of classification is called taxon
Question 2.
Who proposed Binomial Nomenclature?
Answer:
Carolus Linnaeus
Question 3.
Define aestivation.
Answer:
Mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in floral bud with respect to the other members of the same whorl.
Question 4.
What is open type of vascular bundle?
Answer:
If cambium is present between phloem and xylem.
Question 5.
Name the cell which stores fat?
Answer:
Adipose cell.
Question 6.
In which muscular tissue intercalated discs are found?
Question 7.
Name the stage of cell cycle where DNA replication takes place?
Answer:
Interphone or S-Phase of Interphase.
Question 8.
Define Guttation
Answer:
Loss of water in the form of liquid droplets through water stomata.
Question 9.
What is hydroponics?
Answer:
Technique of growing plants in a nutrient solution.
Question 10.
Define lymph.
Answer:
The fluid present lymphatic system.
Part – B
Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 3 – 5 sentences each, wherever applicable:( 5 x 2 = 10 )
Question 11.
Write a note on Herbarium.
Answer:
Herbarium is a store house of collected plant specimens that are dried and preserved on sheets.
The herbaria serve as quick referral systems in taxonomic studies
Question 12.
Diagram a Labeled diagram of Nostoc Filament.
Answer:
Question 13.
Give any Two economic importances of algae.
Answer:
Question 14.
Differentiate between chordates and non chordates
Answer:
| Chordates | Non Chordates |
| 1. Notochord is present | 1. Notochord is absent |
| 2. Dorsal, hollow tubular nerve cord | 2. Ventral, solid double nerve cord |
| 3. Gill slits present | 3. Absent |
| 4. Heart is ventral | 4. Ventral |
| 5. Post anal tail present | 5. Absent |
Question 15.
What are long day and short day plants?
Answer:
Question 16.
Define Inspiration and Expiration
Answer:
Question 17.
Mention two contractile proteins
Answer:
Question 18.
Name any two types of movements.
Answer:
Part – C
Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 40 – 80 words each, wherever applicable: ( 5 x 3 = 15 )
Question 19.
Enumerate any three characters of Pteridophytes.
Answer:
Question 20.
What is phyllotaxy? Mention any two types.
Answer:
The arrangement of leaves on the stem
Question 21.
Labeled diagram of Collenchyma.
Answer:
Question 22.
Mention one function of each
a) Ribosome,
b) Endoplasmic reticulum,
c) Golgi apparatus.
Answer:
a) Ribosome- Protein synthesis
b) Endoplasmic Reticulum- Lipid synthesis or protein synthesis.
c) Golgi apparatus- Packing material or Formation of glycoproteins or Lipids.
Question 23.
Write any three differences between Mitosis and Meiosis.
Answer:
| Mitosis | Meiosis |
| 1. Equational division | 1. Reductional |
| 2. Occurs in somatic cells | 2. Reproductive cells |
| 3. Single division | 3. Double division |
| 4. Separation of chromatids in metaphase | 4. Separation of chromatids in homologous chromosomes in metaphase. |
| 5. Prophase is of shorter duration | 5. Longer duration |
| 6. Formation of 2 cells | 6. 4 cells |
| 7. Synapsis, Crossing over and Recombination do not take place during prophase. | 7. All these takes place in prophase – I |
| 8. Karyokinesis is followed by cytokinesis | 8. Interkinesis is followed by prophase – II |
Question 24.
List any three physiological roles of Cytokinins.
Answer:
Question 25.
Define. a)Ammonotelism b)Ureotelism.c)Uricotelism.
Answer:
a) Ammonotelism- Excrete ammonia
b)Ureotelism- Excrete Urea
c) Uricotelism- Excrete uric acid
Question 26.
Mention the formed elements of Blood
Answer:
Part – D
Section – I
Answer any FOUR of the following questions in 200 – 250 words each, wherever applicable: ( 4 x 5 = 20 )
Question 27.
Write the salient features of the phylum Arthropoda.
Answer:
Question 28.
Explain Fluid Mosaic Model with labelled diagram.
Answer:
Question 29.
Write the functions of the following proteins a) Collagen b) trypsin c) Insulin d) antibody e) receptor protein.
Answer:
a) Collagen-inter cellular ground substance
b) Trypsin- Enzyme
c) Insulin- Hormone
d) Antibody- Fight against microbes
e) Receptor- Sensory
Question 30.
Explain Mass flow hypothesis.
Answer:
Question 31.
Explain the development of root nodules in Soyabean.
Answer:
Question 32.
Write the Z scheme of light reaction.
Answer:
Part – D
Section – II
Answer any THREE of the following questions in 200 – 250 words each, wherever applicable: ( 3 x 5 = 15 )
Question 33.
Draw a labeled sketch of Digestive system of cockroach
Answer:
Question 34.
Schematic representation of Krebs cycle (Citric Acid Cycle)
Answer:
Question 35.
Mention any five hormones of anterior pituitary.
Answer:
Question 36.
Name the divisions of Human neural system. Explain the components of each division.
Answer:
1. Central Nervous System
a) Brain
b) Spinal cord
2. peripheral Nervous System
a) Somatic Nervous System
b) Autonomic Nervous System
i)Sympathetic
ii) Parasympathetic
Question 37.
a) Name disaccharide digesting enzymes found in the intestinal juice.
Answer:
b) What is oxygen dissociation curve? Write its significance.
Answer:
Definition-A Sigmoid Curve is obtained when percentage saturation of Hemoglobin with oxygen is plotted against the partial pressure of oxygen.
Significance- It is useful in studying the effect of factors like partial pressure Of carbon dioxide, proton concentration on binding of oxygen with Hemoglobin.
Students can Download 1st PUC Biology Model Question Paper 1 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Biology Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.
Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 70
General Instructions:
Part – A
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence each: ( 1 × 10 = 10 )
Question 1.
Define metabolism
Answer:
Sum total of all the chemical reactions occurring in the cell of an organism.
Question 2.
What are taxonomic aids?
Answer:
The tools or devices or procedures used in the study of taxonomy.
Question 3.
What is venation?
Answer:
The arrangement of veins and veinlets in the leaf lamina.
Question 4.
Why does enzyme activity decrease at high temperature?
Answer:
Due to denaturation of proteins.
Question 5.
How does diffusion differ from active transport?
Answer:
Diffusion differ from active transport as it occurs across the gradient and do not require metabolic energy.
Question 6.
Define apoplast
Answer:
It is a system of adjacent cell walls that is continuous throughout the plant except the casparian strips of the endodermis in the root.
Question 7.
What is transpiration?
Answer:
The evaporative loss of water by plants.
Question 8.
What is nitrogen fixation?
Answer:
The process of conversion of nitrogen to ammonia.
Question 9.
Define the codont
Answer:
Tooth is embedded in the socket of jaw bone.
Question 10.
What is tetany?
Answer:
Rapid spasms in muscle due to calcium in body fluid.
Part – B
Answer any five of the following questions in 3-5 sentences each wherever applicable: ( 2 × 5 = 10 )
Question 11.
What is binomial nomenclature? Mention any two taxonomic categories
Answer:
The system of providing a name with two components is called binomial nomenclature.
Species, genus, family, order, class, division, phylum, kingdom.
Question 12.
Draw a neat labeled diagram of TMV
Answer:
Question 13.
What are bilateral and radial symmetry?
Answer:
Bilateral symmetry – The body can be divided into identical left and right halves in only one plane.
Radial symmetry – The body can be divided into equal halves in any plane passing through the central axis of the body.
Question 14.
Write any two characters of collenchyma
Answer:
Question 15.
What are radial and conjoint vascular bundles?
Answer:
The xylem and phloem within a vascular bundles are arranged in an alternate manner on different radii is called radial vascular bundle.
The xylem and phloem are situated at the same radius of the vascular bundles is called conjoint.
Question 16.
Write any two features of metaphase
Answer:
Question 17.
How are the mycorrhizal association help in absorption of water and minerals in plants?
Answer:
The fungal filaments form a network around the young root or they penetrate the root cells.
The hyphae have a very large surface area that helps in the absorption of water and mineral ions from the soil
Question 18.
Name any two cells of gastric glands and their secretions
Answer:
Peptic or chief cells – pepsinogen
Parietal or oxyntic cells – HCl
Mucus neck cells – mucus
Part – C
Answer any five of the following questions in 100 – 150 words each: ( 3 × 5 = 15 )
Question 19.
Draw a neat labeled diagram of nucleus
Answer:
Question 20.
What are enzymes? Mention any two types
Answer:
Enzymes are the biocatalyst that catalyzes biochemical reactions in the cells.
Question 21.
Give the diagrammatic view of cell cycle
Question 22.
Define the following terms: a) Antiport b) Plasmolysis c) Imbibition
Answer:
a) Antiport – When both the molecules cross the membrane in the same direction.
b) Plasmolysis – Shrinkage of protoplast due to exosmosis.
c) Imbibition – A specialized type diffusion when water is absorbed by solids -colloids causing them to increase in volume.
Question 23.
Enlist the criteria for essentiality of mineral nutrients in plants
Answer:
Question 24.
How does haemodialysis help in purifying the blood?
Answer:
Question 25.
Explain the structure of actin filament
Answer:
Question 26.
Mention the physiological effects due to:
a) Deficiency of Growth hormone
b) Deficiency of iodine
c) Deficiency of insulin
Answer:
a) Low secretion of growth hormone – Pituitary dwarfism
b) Deficiency of iodine – hypothyroidism/goitre
c) Deficiency of insulin – Diabetes mellitus
Part – D
Section – I
Answer any four of the following questions in 200 – 250 words each wherever applicable: ( 5 × 4 = 20 )
Question 27.
Enumerate any five characteristic features of Gymnosperms
Answer:
Question 28.
Draw a neat labeled diagram of male reproductive system of frog
Answer:
Question 29.
a) Write the functions of:
i) Chloroplast ii) Cytoskeleton iii) Centrosome
Answer:
i) Chloroplast – Photosynthesis
ii) Cytoskeleton – Mechanical support/Motility/Maintenance of the cell shape
iii) Centrosome – Spindle apparatus formation during cell division/Basal body of cilia or flagella
b) Enlist the organs involved in endomembrane system.
Answer:
Question 30.
Explain the stages of Calvin cycle
Answer:
The Calvin cycle can be described under three stages: carboxylation, reduction and regeneration.
1. Carboxylation – Carboxylation is the fixation of CO2 into a stable organic intermediate. Carboxylation is the most crucial step of the Calvin cycle where CO2 is utilised for the carboxylation of RuBP.
This reaction is catalysed by the enzyme RuBP carboxylase which results in the formation of two molecules of 3-A. Since this enzyme also has an oxygenation activity it would be more correct to call it RuBP carboxylase-oxygenase or RuBisCO.
2. Reduction – These are a series of reactions that lead to the formation of glucose. The steps involve utilisation of 2 molecules of ATP for phosphorylation and two of NADPH for reduction per CO2 molecule fixed. The fixation of six molecules of CO2 and 6 turns of the cycle are required for the removal of one molecule of glucose from the pathway.
3. Regeneration – Regeneration of the CO2 acceptor molecule RuBP is crucial if the cycle is to continue uninterrupted. The regeneration steps require one ATP for phosphorylation to form RuBP.
Question 31.
a) Classify plants based on photoperiodism
Answer:
b) Mention any two physiological roles of Gibberellins
Answer:
Question 32.
Explain the mechanism of breathing.
Answer:
Part – D
Section – II
Answer any three of the following questions in 200 – 250 words each wherever applicable: ( 5 × 3 = 15 )
Question 33.
Write any five differences between chondricthyes and osteichthyes
Answer:
Chondrichthyes:
Osteichthyes:
Question 34.
Mention the types of placentation with an example each
Question 35.
Explain anaerobic respiration
Answer:
Question 36.
Draw a neat labeled diagram of section of human heart
Answer:
Question 37.
Explain the pathway of reflex action
Answer:
The sudden withdrawal of a body part which comes in contact with objects that are extremely hot, cold pointed or animals that are scary or poisonous.
The entire process of response to a peripheral nervous stimulation, that occurs involuntarily, i.e., without conscious effort or thought and requires the involvement of a part of the central nervous system is called a reflex action.
The reflex pathway comprises at least one afferent neuron (receptor) and one efferent (effector or excitor) neuron appropriately arranged in a series.
The afferent neuron receives signal from a sensory organ and transmits the impulse via a dorsal nerve root into the CNS (at the level of spinal cord). The efferent nueuron then carries signals from CNS to the effector. The stimulus and response thus forms a reflex arc.
Students can Download 1st PUC Biology Model Question Paper 4 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Biology Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.
Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 70
General Instructions:
Part – A
Answer the following questions in one word / one sentence each: ( 10 × 1 = 10 )
Question 1.
Define genus.
Answer:
Genus is a group of related species which has more common characters in comparison to species of other genera.
Question 2.
What are adventitious roots?
Answer:
The roots developed from other than radicle parts.
Question 3.
Name the living mechanical tissue in plants.
Answer:
Collenchyma.
Question 4.
What do you mean by metacentric chromosome?
Answer:
The metacentric chromosome has middle centromere forming two equal arms.
Question 5.
Define crossing over.
Answer:
Exchange of genetic material between two non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis I.
Question 6.
What is a parthenocarpic fruit?
Answer:
It is the fruit formed without fertilization of the ovary.
Question 7.
What is plasmolysis?
Answer:
When a plant cell kept in hypertonic solution the water moves out of the cell as a result cell membrane (protoplast) shrinks is called plasmolysis.
Question 8.
Write the dental formula of man.
Answer:
2123/2123
Question 9.
What is ammonification?
Answer:
Decomposition of organic nitrogen of dead plants and animals into ammonia is called ammonification.
Question 10.
Expand ECG.
Answer:
Electrocardiograph.
Part – B
Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 3 -5 sentence each wherever applicable. ( 5 × 2 = 10 )
Question 11.
Write the difference between virus and viroids.
Answer:
| Virus | Viroids |
| 1. It is composed of nucleic acid and protein. | 1. It is composed of only RNA |
| 2. Infects both animals and plants. | 2. Infects only plants. |
| 3. These have high molecular weight. | 3. These have low molecular weight. |
Question 12.
What are acoelomates? Give one example.
Answer:
The animals in which body cavity is absent are called acoelomates.
Example: Tapeworm, Liver fluke.
Question 13.
Name the four whorls of flower.
Answer:
The four whorls are -calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium.
Question 14.
Differentiate the skeletal muscle from smooth muscle.
Answer:
| Skeletal muscle | Smooth muscle |
| 1. The muscles are attached to bone | 1. The muscles are present around blood vessels, inner wall of stomach and intestine. |
| 2. Alternative dark and light bands present | 2. Dark and light bands absent. |
| 3. Elongated with cylindrical in shape. | 3. Elongated with pointed ends. |
| 4. Cells are multi nucleated. | 4. Cells are uni-nucleated. |
| 5. Voluntary in function. | 5. Involuntary in function. |
Question 15.
Sketch and label the structure of chromosome.
Answer:
Question 16.
Write any two practical applications of ethylene.
Answer:
Question 17.
What are myofibrils? Name two important proteins present in myofibrils.
Answer:
Question 18.
List the functions of HCl indigestion.
Answer:
Part – C
Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 100-150 words each wherever applicable. ( 5 × 3 = 15 )
Question 19.
Write any three characteristics of living organisms.
Answer:
Question 20.
Briefly explain the events of mitotic prophase.
Answer:
Question 21.
Draw a neat labeled diagram of T.S. of Dicot leaf.
Answer:
Question 22.
Define the following:
a) Differentiation
b) De-differentiation
c) Re-differentiation
Answer:
a) Differentiation – the cells derived from meristems and cambium differentiated to perform specific functions is known as differentiation.
b) De-differentiation – regaining the meristematic property in certain conditions by differentiated living tissue.
c) Re-differentiation – dedifferentiated tissue once again loose capacity to divide but mature to perform specific functions is known as Redifferentiation.
Question 23.
Give a brief account on respiratory disorders.
Answer:
Asthma – it is characterized by difficulty in breathing, causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
Emphysema- is a chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory surface is decreased.
Occupation respiratory disorders – long exposure to dust working in grinding or stone-breaking industries give rise to inflammation leading to fibrosis results in serious lung damage.
Question 24.
Explain the mechanism of blood clotting.
Answer:
Question 25.
Explain the process of ultra filtration.
Answer:
Question 26.
Mention three types of cellular movements in human body with an example.
Answer:
Part – D
Section – I
Answer any FOUR of the following questions in 200-250 words each wherever applicable. ( 4 × 5 = 20 )
Question 27.
Write the general characteristics of angiosperms.
Answer:
Question 28.
Enumerate the features of animals belongs to arthropods.
Answer:
Question 29.
Draw a neat labeled diagram of cockroach male reproductive system,.
Answer:
Question 30.
Describe the structure of chloroplast.
Answer:
Question 31.
Name the building blocks of proteins and explain the structural aspects of proteins.
Answer:
Question 32.
Explain the pathway of water movement in root.
Answer:
Section – II
Answer any THREE of the following questions in 200-250 words each wherever applicable. ( 3 × 5 = 15 )
Question 33.
What are macro nutrients? Mention the role of any four macro nutrients.
Answer:
Definition: The elements required in large quantity (more than 10 m mol/ kg of dry matter) are called macro nutrients.
Question 34.
Define law of limiting factor. Explain four external factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis.
Answer:
Definition: If a chemical process is affected by more than one factor, then its rate will be determined by the factor which is nearest to its minimal value: it is the factor which directly affects the process if its quantity is changed.
Question 35.
Write the schematic representation of Glycolysis.
Answer:
Question 36.
Draw a neat labeled diagram of sagital section of human brain.
Answer:
Question 37.
Name the hormones of adrenal gland and mention their functions.
Answer:
