Category: 1st PUC

Students can Download 1st PUC Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South), Karnataka 1st PUC Accountancy Model Questions with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South)

Time: 3.15 minutes
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions:

1. All sub-questions of section – A should be answered continuously at one place.
2. Provide Working notes wherever necessary.
3. 15 minutes of extra time have been allotted for the candidates to read the questions
4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate full marks.

Section – A

I. Answer any EIGHT of the following questions. Each carries ONE mark: ( 8 × 1 = 8 )

Question 1.
Accounting begins with the identification of transactions and ends with the preparation of _________ statements.
Answer:
financial.

Question 2.
Accounting equation is based on
(a) Cost concept
(b) Separate entity concept
(c) Dual Aspect Concept
(d) Accrual concept
Answer:
(c) Dual Aspect Concept.

Question 3.
A document which provides evidence of the transaction is called
Answer:
Source document or Voucher.

Question 4.
Cash sales are recorded in
(a) Sales book
(b) Cash book
(c) Journal
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Cash book

Question 5.
Trial Balance is a list of balances of all ledger accounts on a particular date [State true or false).
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Who is an endorsee?
Answer:
The person to whom the bill is endorsed is called endorsee.

Question 7.
State any one example for current asset.
Answer:
Cash, Debtors, Stock.

Question 8.
Give the meaning of incomplete records.
Answer:
Accounting records which are not strictly kept according to the double entry system is called as incomplete records.

Question 9.
State any one element of computer system.
Answer:
Hardware, Software Data.

Question 10.
Expand DBMS.
Answer:
Data Base Management System.

Section – B

II. Answer any FIVE of the following questions. Each carries TWO marks: ( 5 × 2 = 10 )

Question 11.
State any two branches of accounting.
Answer:
Financial Accounting, Cost Accounting, Management Accounting.

Question 12.
Give the meaning of accounting concept.
Answer:
Accounting concept refers to the necessary assumption and ideas which are fundamental accounting practice.

Question 13.
Give the rules of debit and credit of asset account.
Answer:

• Debit increase in Asset.
• Credit decrease in Asset.

Question 14.
State any two causes of differences between cash book balance and pass book balance.
Answer:

1. Cheque issued but not presented for payment.
2. Cheque paid into bank but not yet collected.
3. Bank charges not recorded in the cash book.

Question 15.
State any two types of errors.
Answer:

1. Error of commission.
2. Error of omission
3. Error of principle.

Question 16.
What is Depreciation?
Answer:
Depreciation is a permanent, continuous and gradual shrinkage or decline in the book value of fixed asset.

Question 17.
Give any two examples for revenue receipt.
Answer:

1. Commission received
2. Rent received
3. Amount received by the sale of goods and services.

Question 18.
What is Hardware?
Answer:
Hardware means physical components of a computer such as Hardware. Mouse, Monitor and Processor.

Section – C

III. Answer any FOUR of the following questions. Each carries SIX marks : ( 4 × 6 = 24 )

Question 19.
Classify the following in to Assets, Capital, Liabilities, Expenses/Losses and Revenue/ Gains
(a) Capital A/C
(b) Cash A/C
(c) Interest paid A/C
(d) Salary A/C
(e) Creditors A/C
(f) Sales A/C
(g) Machinery A/C
(h) Goodwill A/C
(i) Bills Payable A/C
(j) O/S wages A/C
(k) Discount Received A/C
(l) Stock A/C
Answer:

Question 20.
Enter the following transactions in a simple cash book.

01-06-2018	Cash in hand ₹ 12,000
05-06-2018	Cash received from Ram ₹ 4,000
10-6-2018	Purchase goods from Muruli for cash ₹ 6,000
20-06-2018	Sold goods for cash ₹ 9,000
25-6-2018	Paid salary ₹ 3,000

Answer:

Question 21.
Prepare purchase book from the following transactions:

01-01-2018	Bought goods from Ramcsh Mysore ₹ 10,000
10-01-2018	Purchased goods from Surcsh ₹ 15,000
20-01-2018	Purchased goods from Nagendra for ₹ 20,000 at 10% Trade discount
25-01-2018	Bought goods from Narcsh ₹ 30,000
30-01-2018	Purchased from Vinod ₹ 10,000

Answer:

Question 22.
From the following particulars, prepare a Trial Balance as on 31-03-2018.

	₹
(A) Purchase	95,000
(B) Sales	1,36,000
(C) Bank loan	20,000
(D) Machinery	50,000
(E) Cash	46,000
(F) Capital	96,000
(G) Debtors	80,000
(H) Creditors	17,000
(I) Bills receivable	4,000
(J) Bills payable	6,000

Answer:

Question 23.
From the following balance of Mr. Shankar prepare the trading account for the year ending 31-3-2018.

Particulars	₹
Opening stock	2,00,000
Purchase for the Year	3,00,000
Sales for the Year	5,00,000
Carriage inwards	10,000
Closing stock	2,00,000

Answer:

Question 24.
Find out Credit purchases from the following information by preparing the total Creditors A/C

Particulars	₹
Creditors as on 01-04-2017 Creditors as on 5 1-05-2018 Cash paid by Creditors Return to suppliers Bills accepted drawn by suppliers Bills payable dishonoured	5,000 45,000 70,000 2,000 25,000 4,000

Answer:

Question 25.
Explain any Six limitations of computer accounting system.
Answer:

1. Cost of training
2. Staff opposition
3. Disruption
4. System failure
5. Inability to check errors
6. Ill effects on health
7. Breachery security

Section – D

IV. Answer any FOUR of the following questions. Each carries TWELVE marks: ( 4 × 12 = 48 )

Question 26.
Journalise the following transactions in the books of Mohan

1-9-2018	Started business with cash ₹ 50,000
3-9-2018	opened an account in Canara Bank ₹ 10,000
6-9-2018	Cash purchases ₹ 20,000
8-9-2018	Bought goods from Radhakrishna ₹ 25,000
10-9-2018	Sold goods for cash ₹ 30,000
15-9-2018	Sold goods to Bhavana on credit ₹ 23,000
18-9-2018	Cash paid to Radhakrishna on account ₹ 15,000
25-9-2018	Received Cheque from Bhavana in full settlement of her account ₹ 22,500
26-9-2018	Paid rent by Cheque ₹ 2,000
28-9-2018	Interest credited to our account at Canara Bank ₹ 300
30-09-2018	Paid Salary ₹ 3,000

Answer:

Question 27.
Prepare purchase book, sales book, purchase return book, sales return book from the following informalion

1-8-2018	Bought from Gopal ₹ 50,000 on credit
4-8-2018	Murthy sold goods to us ₹ 30,000
8-8-2018	Sold goods to Kamath ₹ 60,000
12-8-2018	Return goods to Murthy ₹ 2,000
15-8-2018	Sold goods to Devika ₹ 30,000
20-8-2018	Devika returned goods ₹ 4,000                           .
22-8-2018	Bought from Harsha subject to trade discount at 20% ₹ 20,000
24-8-2018	Returned goods by Kamath ₹ 2,500
26-8-2018	Sold goods to Prem ₹ 25,000
28-8-2018	Goods returned to Gopal ₹ 1,200
30-8-2018	Sold goods to Kiran ₹ 10,000 subject to trade discount at 5%
31-8-2018	(roods returned by Prem ₹ 1,550

Answer:

Question 28.
From the following particulars, prepare hank Reconciliation statement
(A) Bank balance as per cash book ₹ 7,800
(B) Cheque deposited hut not credited in the pass hook ₹ 3,000
(C) Cheque issued hut not presented lor the payment ₹ 1,500
(D) Insurance premium paid hv hank ₹ 2,000
(E) Bank Interest credited by the hank ₹ 400
(F) Bank charges ₹ 100
(G) Directly deposited hy a customer ₹ 4,000
Answer:

Question 29.
On 01-04-2013 Tata Company limited purchased a machinery – ‘A’ costing ₹ 1,00,000 on 30-09-2015, the machinery – ‘A’ was sold for ₹ 80,000. On the same date an new machinery – ‘B’was purchased for ₹ 50,000. The firm charges depreciation at 10% pa. under Diminishing balance method: Prepare (a) Machinery A/C and (b) Depreciation A/C for first 4 years.
Answer:



Working Note:
Profit or loss on sale of Machinery ‘A’
Cost of the machinery ‘A’ 1,00,000 Less: Total Depreciation of Machine “A”
10,000 + 9,000 + 4,050

Question 30.
Prakruthi sold goods to Kavya on credit for ₹ 5,000 on 01-01-2017. On the same day Prakruthi drew a bill of exchange for three months for ₹ 5,000 on Kavya on the due date the bill was dishonoured. Pass Journal entries in the books of Prakruthi and Kavya.
Answer:

Question 31.
From the following trial balances prepare trading and prolit and loss account and balance sheet for the year ended 31 -3-2018
Trial Balance as on 31-3-2018


Adjustments:
1. Closing stock was valued at ₹ 4,000
2. Depreciate furniture by 10% p.a and building by 15% p.a
3. Bad debts written off ₹ 500
4. Salary outstanding ₹ 1,000
Answer:

Question 32.
Mr. Bharath kepi his book under incomplete records. He provides you the following information

During the Year he withdrew ₹ 15,000 for his daughter marriage expense and invested additional capital of ₹ 18,000.
Adjustments
(a) Write off bad debts ₹ 1,000
(b) Prepaid Salary ₹ 6,000
(c) Appreciate buildings by 20%
(d) Allow Interest on capital (Opening) at 5% p.a.
Prepare:
(a) Statement of Affairs
(b) Statement of Profit or loss
(c) Revised statement of Affairs.
Answer:

Section – E

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions. Each carries FIVE marks: ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 33.
Drew a diagram of accounting process.
Answer:

Question 34.
Prepare machinery account for two years with imaginary figures under straight line method.
Answer:

Question 35.
Prepare a Statement of Affairs with any five imaginary figures.
Answer:

Students can Download 1st PUC Maths Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South), Karnataka 1st PUC Maths Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Maths Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South)

Time: 3hrs 15 min
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions:

• The question paper has five parts A. B. C, D and E and answer all pails.
• Part-A carries 10 marks. Part-B carries 20 marks. Part-C carries 30 marks. part-D carries 20 marks, Pari-E carries 10 marks.

Part-A

Answer ALL the questions: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Write the set (x : x ∈ R & -4 < x ≤ 6) as an interval.
Answer:
(-4, 6).

Question 2.
Let A = {1, 2} and B= (3, 4). Find the number of relations from sets A to B.
Answer:
No. of Relation = 2^pq = 2^{2 × 2} = 2⁴ = 16 relations.

Question 3.
Convert \(\frac{7 \pi}{6}\) into degree measure.
Answer:
210°.

Question 4.
Find the conjugate of \(\sqrt{3} i-1\)
Answer:
– 1 – \(\sqrt{3} i\)

Question 5.
Find ‘n’ if ⁿC₇ = ⁿC₆
Answer:
ⁿC_n-7 = ⁿC₆ ⇒ n – 7 = 6 ⇒ n = 13

Question 6.
Write the first three terms of the sequence a_n = (-1)^n-1 5ⁿ⁺¹
Answer:
\(\frac{y^{2}}{4}-\frac{x^{2}}{9}=1\)
⇒ a² = 4, b² = 9
⇒ a = 4, b = 3
c = \(\sqrt{a^{2}+b^{2}}=\sqrt{4+9}=\sqrt{13}\)
The eccentricity e = \(\frac{c}{a}=\frac{\sqrt{13}}{2}\)

Question 7.
Find the slope of the line \(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{y}{2}=1\)
Answer:
2x + 3y = 6, m = \(\frac{-a}{b}=\frac{-2}{3}\)

Question 8.
Evaluate \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\cos x}{\pi-x}\)
Answer:
\(\frac{\cos 0}{\pi-0}=\frac{1}{\pi}\)

Question 9.
Write the negative of “For every real number x, x is less than x + 1.”
Answer:
There exist real number x, x is not less than x+1.

Question 10.
If \(\frac{2}{11}\) is the probability of an event A, what is the probability of the event not A?
Answer:
P(A’) = 1- P(A) = \(1-2 / 11=9 / 11\)

Part – B

Answer any TEN questions: (10 × 2 = 20 )

Question 11.
If U = {x : x ≤ 10, x ∈N} A = {x : x ∈ N and x is prime}, B = {x : x ∈ N. x is event} find A ∩ B im roaster form.
Answer:
U = { 1, 2, 3, 4, …………….. 10} A = {2, 3, 5, 7}
B = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}, A ∩ B = {2}

Question 12.
If x and y are the sets such that n(x) = 17, n(y) = 23 & n(X ∪ Y) = 38. Find n(X ∩ Y)
Answer:
n(X ∩ Y) = n(X) + n(y) – n(X ∪ Y) = 17 + 23 – 38 = 2

Question 13.
The cartesian product A × A has 9 elements among which are found (-1,0 & 0,1).
Find the set A and the remaining elements of A × A.
Answer:
A = {-1,0, 1}
A × A = {(-1,-1),(-1,1), (0-1), (0,0),(1,-1), (1,1), (1,0)}

Question 14.
A wheel makes 360 revolutions in one minutes through how many radians does it turn in 1 second.
Answer:
For one second, number of revolutions = 6.

Question 15.
If sin A = \(\frac{3}{5}\) and A is in I quadrant then find sin2A..
Answer:
sin A = \(\frac{3}{5}\) cos A = \(\frac{4}{5}\), sin 2A = 2sinAcosA = \(2\left(\frac{3}{5}\right)\left(\frac{4}{5}\right)\) ⇒ sin 2A = \(\frac{24}{25}\)

Question 16.
Express \(i^{18}+\left(\frac{1}{i}\right)^{25}\) in a + ib form.
Answer:
\(i^{18}+\left(\frac{1}{i}\right)^{25}\) = i² + (-i)²⁵ = i² – i²⁵ = i² – i = -1 -i

Question 17.
Solve 3x – 2 < 2x + 1 & represent the solution graphically on the number line
Answer:

Question 18.
Find the equation of the straight line intersecting y-axis at a distance of 2 units above the origin & making an angle 30° with the positive direction of x-axis.
Answer:
c = 2, m = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) ⇒ y = mx + c ⇒ y = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) x + 2

Question 19.
Find the angle between the lines y – √3x – 5 = 0 and √3y – x + 6 = 0
Answer:
y = \(\sqrt{3 x+5}\) … (i) ∴ [m₁ = √3]
√2y – x + 6 = 0 .
∴ √3y = x – 6 ∴ y = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} x-\frac{6}{\sqrt{3}}\)

Question 20.
Show that the points P(-2, 3, 5), Q (1,2,3) and R(7, 0, -1) are collinear.
Answer:
A = (-2,3,5)
B = (1, 2, 3)
C = (7,0, -1)
By distance formula AB = √14, B = 2√14, CA = 3√14
∴ AC + BC = CA
∴ the points are collinear.

Question 21.
Evaluate \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 3} \frac{x-3}{x^{2}-5 x+6}\)
Answer:

Question 22.
Write the converse and contrapositive of the statement “If s is prime number then x is odd.”
Answer:
Converse
If x is odd then x is prime

Contrapositive
If x is not odd then x is not prime.

Question 23.
The cofficient of vaiation and standard deviation are 60 and 21 respectively. What is the arithmetic mean of the distribution.
Answer:
CV = 60 σ = 21 x̄ = ?

Question 24.
Given p(A) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 5 }\) and p(B) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\). Find P(A or B), if A & B are mutually exclusive events.
Answer:
P(A ∪ B) = p(A) + p(B) (∵p(A ∩ B) = 0)
\(=\frac{3}{5}+\frac{1}{5}=\left[\frac{4}{5}\right]\)

Part – C

Answer any TEN questions: (10 × 3 = 30)

Question 25.
In a group of 600 students in a school, 150 students were found to be taking tea, 225 and taking coffee and 100 were taking both tea and coffee. How may students were taking neither tea nor coffee.
Answer:
Let set of students taking coffee = C & set of students taking tea = T
Also set of students who take either Tea or Coffee = C ∪ T
n (T) = 150 n(C) = 225
n(C ∩ T) = 100 ; n(C ∪ T) = ?
n(C ∪ T) = n(C) + n(T) – n (C ∩ T)
= 150 + 225 – 100 = 275
Number of students taking neither Tea nor Coffee
= n(∪), n (C ∪ T) = 600 – 275 = 325

Question 26.
Let A = {1. 2. 3……… 141. Define a relation R from A to A by R = {(x, y): 3x – y = 0 x,y ε A}. Write ‘R’ in roaster form, write its Domain and Range.
Answer:
y = 3 x R = {(1,3),(2,6), (3,9), (4, 12)}
Domain of R = {1, 2, 3, 4}
Range of R = {3, 6, 9, 12)
Codomain of R = {1, 2, 3, ….. 14}

Question 27.
Find the general solution of 2cos²x + 3sinx = 0.
Answer:
2cos²2x + 3sinx = 0
2(1 – sin²2x) + 3sinx = 0
2 – 2sin²2x + 3sinx = 0
2sin²2x – 3sinx – 2 = 0
2sin²2x – 4sinx + sinx – 2 = 0
2sin x(sin x – 2)+1 (sinx – 2) = 0
(sin x – 2)(2sin x + 1) = 0
sin x – 2 = 0 or 2 sin x + 1 = 0
sin x = 2 or sin x = -1/2

Question 28.
Express \(\frac{-1+i}{\sqrt{2}}\) in the polar form.
Answer:

Question 29.
Solve the equation \(x^{2}+\frac{x}{\sqrt{2}}+1=0\)
Answer:

Question 30.
How many words with or without meaning can be made from the letters of the word ‘MONDAY’ assuming no letter is repeated. if
(i) 4 letters are used at a time.
(ii) All letters are used at a time
(iii) All letters are used but first letter is a vowel.
Answer:
There are 6 letters in the word MONDAY. So, the total number of words is equal to the number of arrangements of these letters taken four at a time
The number of such arrangements = ⁶P₄ \(=\frac{6 !}{(6-4) !}=\frac{6 !}{2 !}=\frac{6.5 .4 .3 .2 .1}{2.1}=360\)
Hence, total number of words = 360
(ii) Total number of arrangements in this case = ⁶P₆ = 6! = 720
(iii) Total number of arrangements when all letters are used but the first letter is a vowel
= 2. ⁵P₅ = 2.5! = 2 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 x 1 = 240.

Question 31.
Find the term independent of x in the expansion of \(\left(\frac{3 x^{2}}{2}-\frac{1}{3 x}\right)^{6}\)
Answer:
We have

The term will be independent of x if the index of x is zero, i.e., 12 – 3r = 0. Thus, r= 4
Hence 5th term is independent of x and is given by (-1)^{4 6}C₄ \(\frac{(3)^{6-8}}{(2)^{6-4}}=\left[\frac{5}{12}\right]\)

Question 32.
The sum of first three terms of a GP is \(\frac{13}{12}\) and their product is –1. Find the common ratio and the terms.
Answer:
Given Let the numbers be \(\frac{\mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{r}}\), a & ar.
Product = -1
∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{r}}\).a.ar = -1
a³ = -1 ⇒ a = -1Given Sum = \(\left[\frac{13}{12}\right]\)

– 12 – 12r² = 25r
12r² + 25r + 12 = 0
12r² + 16 + 9r + 12 = 0.
4r(3r + 4) + 9r + 12.= 0
4r(3r + r) + 3(3r + 4) = 0
(3r + 4)(4r + 3) = 0
\(r=-\frac{4}{3},-\frac{3}{4}\)
∴ the numbers are
(i) \(\frac{a}{r}=\frac{-1}{-4 / 3}=\frac{3}{4}\)
(ii) a = -1
(iii) ar = -1. \(\left(-\frac{4}{3}\right)=\frac{3}{4}\)
\(\frac{3}{4},-1, \frac{4}{3}\)

Question 33.
Insert 3 arithmetic means between 8 & 24.
Answer:
a_n = a + (n + 1) d
24 = 8 + (y – 1)d ∴ 16 = 4d ⇒ d=4
3 Means are [12,16,20 ]

Question 34.
Find the equation of the parabola with vertex at the origin, axis along x – axis and passing through the point (2, 3) also find its focus,
Answer:
y² = 4ax, (2,3) ⇒ 9 = 4a(2) ⇒ a = \(\frac{9}{8}\)
Equn. is y² = 4\(\left(\frac{9}{8}\right)\) x ⇒ y² = \(\frac{9}{2} x\) Focus = \(\left(\frac{9}{8}, 0\right)\)

Question 35.
Find the derivative of the function cosx w.r. t. x from first principle.
Answer:
Let f(x) = cos x. ∴ f(x + ∆x) = cos(x + ∆x).

Question 36.
Verify by the method of contradiction that √2 is an irrational,
Answer:
If possible Let √2 -be rational
∴ √2 = \(\frac { p }{ q }\) where p, q ∈z, q ≠ 0 we also assume that p and q do not have any common factor
∴ √2q = p ⇒ 2q² = p² ⇒ p² is even
⇒ p is even

Put
∴ p = 2k where k ∈ z
p² = 4k²
2q² = 4k² ⇒ q² = 2k² ⇒ q² is even
⇒ q is even

∴ p and q are both even and hence has a common factor 2 which is a contradiction
∴ √2 is irrational.

Question 37.
One card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. If each out come is equally likely, calculate the probability that the card will be (i) diamond (ii) not an ace (iii) a black card,
Answer:
(i) Let A: Card drawn is diamond.
∴ n(A) = 13 → favourable number of events

(ii) P(Ā) = P(not A) = 1 – P(A) = \(1-\frac{1}{4}=\frac{3}{4}\)

(iii) There are 26 black cards
∴ p(black) = \(\frac{26}{52}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 38.
A fair coin 1 marked on one face and 6 on the other face and a fair die are both tossed. find the probability that the sum of numbers that turn up is (i) 3 (ii) 12.
Answer:
Coin has faces marked with 1, 6.
A fair die has faces marked as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
∴ total number of equally likely cases = 2 × 6 = 12
(i) Favourable case is (1, 2) i.e., 1 only. ∴ red. probability = \(\frac { 1 }{ 12 }\)
(ii) Favourable case is (6, 6) i.e. 1 only. ∴ reqd. probability = \(\frac { 1 }{ 12 }\)

Part -D

Answer any SIX questions: (6 × 5 = 30 )

Question 39.
Define signum function. Draw the graph of it and Write down its domain and Range.
Answer:
The function f: R → R defined by

is called the signum function. The domain of the signum function is R and the range is the set {-1,0, 1}.

Question 40.
Prove that \(\frac{\cos 4 x+\cos 3 x+\cos 2 x}{\sin 4 x+\sin 3 x+\sin 2 x}=\cot 3 x\)
Answer:

Question 41.
Prove by mathematical induction
1² + 2² + 3² + …… + n² = \(\frac{n(n+1)(2 n+1)}{6}\) ∀n ∈ N
Answer:
Let p(n) : 1² + 2² + 3² + …… + n² = \(\frac{n(n+1)(2 n+1)}{6}\)
step 1 : Prove that P(1) is true
when n= 1; L.H.S = 1² = 1 R.H.S = 1(1 + 1)(2 + 1)6 = 2.3/6 = 1
∴ L.H.S = R.H.S
∴ P(1) is true

step 2: Assume that P(m) is true
i.e., 1² + 2² + 3² + ………. + m² = \(\frac{n(m+1)(2 m+1)}{6}\) ……… (1)

step 3: Prove that P(m + 1) is true
i.e., 1² + 2² + 3² + ……….. m² + (m+1)² = \(\frac{(m+1)(m+2)(2 m+3)}{6}\)

Conclusion: P(1) is true
P(m) is true ⇒ P(m + 1) is true
∴ By principle of mathematical induction, the result is true for all natural numbers ‘n’.

Question 42.
Solve graohically the system of inequalities x + 2y ≥ 20, 3x + y ≤ 15
Answer:
Consider the equations
x + 2y = 20 … (1) and 3x + y = 15 ….(2)

(i). Region represented by x + 2y ≥ 20 :
line (1) meets x-axis it (20,0) and y-axis at (0, 10) By joining these two points we get the line (1) put x = 0, y = 0 in x + 2y ≥ 20 ⇒ 0 ≥ 20, which is not true
∴ (0,0) does not satisfy the inequation
∴ The portion which does not contain origin represents the solution set of x + 2y ≥ 20

(ii) Region represented by 3x + y ≤ 15
line (2) meets x-axis at (5,0) and y-axis at (0, 15) By joining these two, we get line (2)
∴ put x = 0, y = 0 in 3x + y ≤ 15 ⇒ 0 ≤ 15 which is true
∴ (0, 0) satisfies the inequation
∴ The portion containing the origin represent the solution set of 3x + y = 15

∴ All the points in the common shaded region are the solutions of the system of linear in equations

Question 43.
A group consists of 4 girls and 7 boys. In how many ways can a team of 5 members be en selected, if the team has at “least one boy and one girl”?
Answer:
(i) Since, the team will not include any girl, therefore, only boys are to be selected. 5 boys out of 7 boys can be selected in ⁷C₅ ways. Therefore, the required number of ways
\(=^{7} \mathrm{C}_{5} \frac{7 !}{5 ! 2 !}=\frac{6 \times 7}{2}=21\)

(ii) Since, at least one boy and one girl are to be there in every team. Therefore, the team can
consist of
(a) 1 boy and 4 girls
(b) 2 boys and 3 girls
(c) 3 boys and 2 girls
(d) 4 boys and 1 girl.
1 boys and 4 girls can be selected in ⁷C₁ × ⁴C₄ ways.
2 boys and 3 girls can be selected in ⁷C₂ × ⁴C₃ ways.
3 boys and 2 girls can be selected in ⁷C₃ × ⁴C₂ ways.
4 boys and 1 girls can be selected in ⁷C₄ × ⁴C₁ ways.
Therefore, the required number of ways
= ⁷C₁ × ⁴C₄ + ⁷C₂ × ⁴C₃ + ⁷C₃  × ⁴C₂ + ⁷C₄ × ⁴C₁
= 7 + 84 + 210 + 140 = 441

(iii) Since, the team has to consist of at least 3 girls, the team can consist of
(a) 3 girls and 2 boys, or (b) 4 girls and 1 boy.
Note that the team cannot have all 5 girls, because, the group has only 4 girls.
3 girls and 2 boys can be selected in ⁴C₃ × ⁷C₂ ways.
4 girls and 1 boys can be selected in ⁴C₄ × ⁷C₂ ways.
Therefore, the required number of ways
= ⁴C₃ × ⁷C₂ + ⁴C₄ × ⁷C₁ = 84 + 7 =91.

Question 44.
State and prove Binomial theorem for positive integral index ‘n’.
Answer:
Statement: “If ‘n’ is a +ve integer then
(x + a)ⁿ = ⁿc₀ xⁿ a⁰ + ⁿc₁ x^n-1 a¹+ ⁿ₂ x^n-2.a²+ ………….. + ⁿc_n x⁰ aⁿ.
Proof : (By Mathematical induction):
Let p(n) : (x + a)ⁿ = ⁿc₀ xⁿa⁰ + ⁿc₁ x^n-1 a¹ + ⁿC₂ x^n-2 a² + ……………… + ⁿc_n x⁰aⁿ.

Step1 : Prove that P(1) is true
when n= 1, L.H.S = (x + a)¹ = x + a; RHS = ¹c₀ x¹ a¹ = |x.| + 1.1.a = x + a
L.H.S. = R.H.S.
∴ P(1) is true

Question 45.
Find the co- ordinate of the foot of the perpendicular from the point (-1,3) to the line 3x – 4y – 16 = 0.
Answer:
Let (a, b) be the coordinates of the foot of perpendicular from the point (-1,3) to the line and
slope of the line joining (-1,3) and (a, b) = \(\frac{b-3}{a+1}\)
Slope of the line 3x – 4y – 16 = 0 is = \(\frac{3}{4}\)
Since two lines are perpendicular \(\left(\frac{b-3}{a+1}\right)\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)=-1\)
4a + 3b = 5 ………….. (1)
Point (a b) lies on 3x – 4y – 16 = 0
3a – 4b – 16 = 0 …………. (2)
Solving (1) & (2), we get a = \(\frac{68}{25}\)  b = \(\frac{49}{25}\)

Question 46.
Derive an expression for the coordinates of a point that divides the line joining the points A(x, y, z,) & B(x₂ y₂ z₂) internally in the ratio m: n and hence find the mid-point of(1,2,3) & (5,6,7)
Answer:
Section formula
Obtain the co-ordinates of the point which divides the line joining A(x₁ y₁, z₁,) and B(x₂, y₂, z₂)

Proof: Let P(x₁, y₁, z₁,) and Q(x₂, y₂, z₂) be the given points. Let R(x, y, z) divide PQ internally in the ratio m:n.
Draw PL, QM, RN ⊥^r‘ to XY-plane.”
∴ PL ∥ RN ∥ QM
∴ PL, QM, RN lie in one plane so that the points L, N, M lie in a straight line which is the intersection of this plane and XY plane, through the point R draw a line AB parallel to the line LM. The line AB will intersect the line LP externally at A and the line MQ at B.
Triangles APR and BQR are similar


∴ n(z – z₁) = m(z₂ – z) ⇒ nz – nz₁ = mz₂ – mz
mż + nz = mz₂ + nz₁ ⇒ (m + n)z = mz₂ + nz₁ ⇒ z = \(\frac{m z_{2}+n z_{1}}{m+n}\)

Question 47.
Prove that \(\lim _{\theta \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin \theta}{\theta}=1\) (θ is measured in radian) and hence evaluate \(\lim _{\theta \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin a \theta}{\sin b \theta}\)
Answer:
Proof :
Consider a circle with centre O & radius ‘r’ Mark two points A & B on the circle so that

At A draw a tangent to the circle. Produce OB to cut the tangent at C.
Join AB. Draw BM ⊥ OA
From the figure it is clear that
Area of ∆OAB < Area of sector OAB < sector of ∆OAC ….. (1)
Area of ∆OAB = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) OA.BM
[In ∆ OBM.Sinθ = \(\frac{B M}{O B}=\frac{B M}{r}\) ⇒ BM = r Sinθ]

∴ Area of ∆OAB = \(\frac{1}{2} r\) r.sinθ = \(\frac{1}{2} r^{2}\) sinθ
Area of sector OAB = \(\frac{1}{2} r^{2} \theta\)
Area of ∆OAC = \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{OA} \cdot \mathrm{AC}\)

Question 48.
Find the mean deviation about mean for the following data.

Answer:

0 = 10

Part – E

Answer any ONE question: (1 × 10 = 10)

Question 49.
(a) Prove geometrically that cos (x + y) = cos x cosy – sinx siny.
Answer:
Prove that cos(x + y) = cos x cos y .sin x sin y

Proot Consider a unit circle (radius = 1 unit) with centre is (0, 0).
Consider 4 point and P₁, p₂, p₃ and p₄

The co-ordinate of and P₁, p₂, p₃ and p₄ are given by
p₁ = (cosx,sinx) P₂ = [cos(x+y), sin(x+y)]
p₃ = [cos(-y),sin (-y)] P₄ = [1,O]
From the figure OP₁OP₃ is congruent to P₂P₄
∴ From distance formula
p₁p₃ = p₂p₄ …(l)
Take the distance (p₁P₃ )² = [cosx – cos(-y)]² + [sin x – sin (-y)]²
= (cosx – cosy)² + (sin x + sin y)²
= cos² x + cos² y = cosxcosy + sin²x + sin²y + 2sincosy = 1 + 1 + 2(cosxcosy – sinxsiny)
(P₁P₃)² = 2 – 2 cos(x + y)
Again (P₂P₄ )² = [1^{(a-b)2-cos(x+y)} ]² + |q – sin (x + y)|²
= 1 + cos²(x + y) -2cos(x + y) + sin2(x + y) = 1 + 1 – 2cos(x + y) = 2 – 2cos(x + y)

⇒ LHS = RHS
∴ [cos(x + y) = cosxcosy – sin x sin y]

(ii) Show that cos2x = cos₂x – sin x₂x
Take cos(x + y) = cosxcos y – sin xsin y
Put y = X
∴ cos(x + x) cosxcosx – sin xsin x
cos2x = cos₂x – sin₂x

(b) Find the derivative of \(\frac{x^{5}-\cos x}{\sin x}\) w.r.t. x.
Answer:

Question 50.
(a) Define ellipse and derive its equation in the form \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}\) =1(a > b)
Answer:
Let F₁ and F₂ be the foci and O be the mid point of the line segment F₁F₂. Let O be the origin
and the line from 0 through F₂ be the positive x-axis and that through F₁ as the negative x – axis. Let, the line through O perpendicular to the x-axis be the y-axis. Let the coordinates of F₁ be (-0, 0) and F₂ be (c, 0).
Let P(x, y) be any point on the ellipse such that the sum of the distances from P to the two foci be 2a .
i.e., PF₁ + PF₂ = 2a. ….(1)
Using the distance formula, we have
\(\sqrt{(x+c)^{2}+y^{2}}+\sqrt{(x-c)^{2}+y^{2}}=2 a\)
\(\text { ie., } \sqrt{(x+c)^{2}+y^{2}}=2 a-\sqrt{(x-c)^{2}+y^{2}}\)
Squaring both sides, we get.
(x + c)² + y² = 4a² – 4a \(\sqrt{(x-c)^{2}+y^{2}}+(x-c)^{2}+y^{2}\)
which on simplification gives
\(\sqrt{(x-c)^{2}+y^{2}}=a-\frac{c}{a} x\)
Squaring again and simplifying, we get
\(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{a^{2}-c^{2}}=1\)
i.e., \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1\) (since c² = a² – b²)
Hence any point on the ellipse satisfies
\(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1\)
Conversely, let P(x, y) satisfy the equation (2) with 0 < c < a. Then

So, any point that satisfies \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1\) satisfies the geometric condition and so P(x, y) lies
on the ellipse.

Hence from (2) and (3), we proved that the equation of an ellipse with centre of the origin and major axis along the x-axis is
\(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1\)

(b) Find the sum to n terms of the series 3 × 8 + 6 × 11 + 9 × 14 + …………….. 4
Answer:
Take 3, 6, 9 …………… = 3n
8, 11, 14, ……. (3n + 5)
∴ a_n = 3n (3n + 5)
a_n = 9n² + 15 n
apply Σ an both midl
Σa_n = Σ9n² + Σ15n = S_n ⇒ 9Σn² + 15Σn

Students can Download 1st PUC Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (North), Karnataka 1st PUC Accountancy Model Questions with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (North)

Time: 3.15 minutes
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions:

1. All sub-questions of section – A should be answered continuously at one place.
2. Provide Working notes wherever necessary.
3. 15 minutes of extra time have been allotted for the candidates to read the questions
4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate full marks.

Section -A

I. Answer any EIGHT of the following questions. Each carries ONE mark: ( 8 × 1 = 8 )

Question 1.
Accounting begins with the identification of transactions and ends with the preparation
of _________ statements.
Answer:
Financial.

Question 2.
Accounting equation is based on
(a) Cost concept
(b) Separate entity concept
(c) Dual Aspect concept
(d) Accrual concept
Answer:
Dual Aspect concept.

Question 3.
The process of transferring journal entry to individual accounts is called _________.
Answer:
Ledger Posting.

Question 4.
Goods purchased on cash are recorded in this
(a) Purchases Book
(b) Sales Book
(c) Cash Book
(d) Purchases Returns book
Answer:
(c) Cash book.

Question 5.
Trial balance is a statement (State True/False).
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
State any one feature of Bills of Exchange.
Answer:

1. It must be in writing
2. It is an order to make payment.

Question 7.
Give an example for Fixed Assets.
Answer:
Building a/c or Machinery a/c.

Question 8.
Give the meaning of Adjusted Closing Capital.
Answer:
Adjusted closing capital = (Closing capital + drawings – additional capital).

Question 9.
Expand ‘MIS’.
Answer:
Management Information System.

Question 10.
Write any one type of Accounting Software
Answer:

1. Tally
2. Business Accounts(or)
3. Excel

Section – B

II. Answer any Five of the following questions. Each carries TWO marks: ( 5 × 2 = 10 )

Question 11.
Define Accounting.
Answer:
It is the art of recording, classifying and summarising in a significant manner and in terms of money transactions and events which are in part atleast of financial character and interpreting the results thereof.

Question 12.
State any two differences between single entry and double entry system of book keeping
Answer:
Single Entry System:

1. It is an unscientific method.
2. It is incomplete system of accounting

Double Entry System:

1. It is a scientific method.
2. It is complete system of accounting

Question 13.
Write the rules of debit and credit of Liabilities accounting
Answer:

• Rules for Debit & Credit of liabilities a/c
• Debit decreases.
• Credit increases.

Question 14.
What is Bank Reconciliation statement?
Answer:
It is a statement showing the difference between Cashbook balance and pass book balance are found out and suitable adjustments are made to reconcile each other.

Question 15.
Give any two examples for errors of commission.
Answer:

1. Credit Sales to Mohan ₹ 10,000 were recorded as ₹ 1,000 in the sales book
2. Credit purchases from ₹ Kiran 5,000 were recorded as ₹ 500 in the purchase book.

Question 16.
Name any two types of reserves.
Answer:

1. General Reserve
2. Capital Reserve
3. Revenue Reserve

Question 17.
What is capital expenditure?
Answer:
Capital expenditure is an expenditure in which benefit of expenditure extends more than one accounting period. It is non recurring in nature.

Question 18.
What do you mean by report?
Answer:
Report is a document in written / printed form which presents information in an organized manner to the management for decision making.

Section – C

III. Answer any FOUR of the following questions. Each carries SIX marks : ( 4 × 6 = 24 )

Question 19.
Classify the following accounts into Assets. Liabilities, Capital, Revenue/Gains and – Expenses/Losses.
a) Drawings A/c
b) Sales A/c
c) Purchases A/c
d) Cash A/c
e) Salaries A/c
f) Buildings A/c
g) Machinery A/c
h) Creditors A/c
i) Purchases Return A/c
j) Bills receivable A/c
k) O/S wages A/c
l) Interest on Investment A/c
Answer:
a) Capital A/c – Drawings A/c
b) Revenue A/c – Sales A/c
c) Expenses A/c – Purchases A/c
d) Assets A/c – Cash A/c
e) Expenses A/c – Salaries A/c
f) Assets A/c – Buildings A/c
g) Assets A/c – Machinery A/c
h) Liabilities A/c – Creditors A/c
i) Expenses A/c – Purchase return A/c
j) Assets A/c – Bills Receivable
k) Liabilities A/c – O/S Wages
l) Revenue A/c – Interest on Investment

Question 20.
Enter the following transactions in an Analytical Petty Cash Book:

01-04-2018	Received cash from main cashier ₹ 1,000
06-04-2018	Paid for postage stamps ₹ 240
12-04-2018	Purchased stationery ₹ 220
18-04-2018	Taxi Hire charges paid ₹ 140
26-04-2018	Paid for printing ₹ 300

Answer:

Question 21.
From the following transactions prepare sales book for the month February 2018 in the books of Priyanka Traders.

2018
Feb. 05	Sold 4 bags of Wheat flour at ₹ 500 each to Ashoka Hotel.
Feb. 12	Sold 2 boxes of spices at ₹ 800 per box to Amar on account.
Feb. 18	Vikas bought from us 5 kg. coffee powder at ₹ 700 per kg trade discount at 8%.
Feb. 20	Sold to Hema 5 kgs of sugar at ₹ 35 per kg for cash.
Feb. 28	Sold 4 bags of rice at ₹ 3,000 per bag to Rajesh.

Answer:

Question 22.
From the following ledger balance, prepare the Trial Balanee as on 31^st March 2018.

S.No.	Particulars	Balance (₹)
1.	Purchases A/c	95,000
2.	Sales A/c	1,36,000
3.	Bank Loan A/c	20,000
4.	Machinery A/c	50,000
5.	Cash A/c	46,000
6.	Capital A/c	1,00,000
7.	Debtors A/c	80,000
8.	Creditors A/c	17,000
9.	Bills Receivable A/c	4,000
10.	Bills Payable A/c	2,000

Answer:

Question 23.
Compute cost of goods sold for the year 2017.

Particulars	Amount (₹)
Stock on 01-04-2016 Stock on 31-03-2017 Purchases during the year Sales during the year Wages	3,00,000 4,00,000 15,00,000 20,00,000 1,20,000

Answer:
Cost of goods sold = opening stock + purchases + direct expenses – closing stock

Question 24.
Find out the Credit Sales by preparing Total Debtors Account.

Particulars	Amount (₹)
Opening balance of Debtors	35,000
Closing balance of Debtors	42,000
Sales returns	2,000
Cash received from Debtors	50,000
Discount to customers	3,000

Answer:

Question 25.
Briefly explain any Six advantages of computerised Accounting system.
Answer:

1. Speed
2. Accuracy
3. Reliability
4. Up-to-date
5. Real time user-interface
6. Legibility.

Section – D

IV. Answer any FOUR of the following questions. Each carries TWELVE marks: ( 4 × 12 = 48 )

Question 26.
Journalise the following transactions in the hooks of Shri Naresh

April – 01	Started business with cash ₹ 1,00,000
April – 03	Cash paid into hank ₹ 30,000
April – 06	Cash purchases ₹ 30,000
April – 10	Sold goods to Mohan ₹ 20,000
April – 13	Goods returned from Mohan ₹ 3,000
April-15	Received commission ₹ 2,000
April – 18	Drew from hank for personal use ₹ 3,000
April – 20	Cash received from Mohan in full settlement of his account ₹ 16,500
April – 26	Paid Rent by cheque ₹ 4,000
April – 28	Purchased furniture from Kishor ₹ 10,000
April – 30	Paid for salary ₹ 5,000

Answer:

Question 27.
Record the following transactions in Two-column Cash Book of Mr. Sagar and balance it.

May – 01	Bank balance ₹ 50,000
May – 01	Cash balance ₹ 10,000
May – 02	Paid insurance premium by cheque ₹ 8,000
May – 05	Cash sales ₹ 25,000
May – 08	Cash purchases ₹ 18,000
May – 10	Cash deposited into Bank ₹ 19,000
May – 12	Telephone Bill paid by cheque ₹ 2,500
May – 15	Withdrawn cash from bank for personal use ₹ 5,000
May – 16	Cash withdrawn from bank for office use ₹ 10,000
May – 20	Received a cheque from Anand ₹ 10,500 and deposited into bank
May- 24	Cartage paid in cash ₹ 1,500
May – 30	A cheque received from Kumar ₹ 5,000

Answer:

Question 28.
From the following information prepare Bank Reconciliation Statement as on December 31, 2017.
a) Bank balance as per cash book ₹ 20,000
b) Cheque issued but not presented for payment prior to Dec. 31, 2017 ₹ 4,000
c) Interest on investment collected by the bank and credited in the passbook only ₹ 2,000.
d) Bank charges debited in the passbook only ₹ 100.
e) Cheque paid into bank, but not cleared before December 31,-2017 ₹ 3,000.
f) Interest credited in the passbook only ₹ 400
Answer:

Question 29.
On 01-01-2014 a firm purchased Machinery Costing ₹ 80,000. On 01-07-2016, it sold the machinery for ₹ 60,000 and on the same date a new machine was purchased for ₹ 20,000. Depreciation was charged annually at 10% pa. on Straight Line Method.
Accounts are closed on 31st March every year. Show the Machinery account and Depreciation Account for first Four years.
Answer:
Calculation of profit or loss on sale of Machinery
Machinery purchased on 1.1.2014
Costing ₹ 80,000
Depreciation charged for

Question 30.
On 01-04-2015 Sadhana drew a bill nil Savitlia for ₹ 50,000 payable after 3 months. Savitha accepted the bill and returned it to Sadhana. On the same date, Sadhana – endorsed the bill to Kumar. On the above date, the bill is discounted by Kumar at 12% p.a. on the due date the bill is honoured.
Pass the Journal Entries in the books of Sadhana. Savitha and Kumar.
Answer:

Question 31.
From the following Ledger balances and adjustments, prepare Trading and Profit and Loss A/c and a Balance Sheet.

Adjustments :
1) Stock as on 31st March 2018, was ₹ 10,000.
2) Insurance prepaid ₹ 100.
3) O/S salaries ₹ 200.
4) Depreciate buildings by 5% p.a.
5) Provide PBD at 5% p.a. on debtors.
Answer:

Question 32.
Sonali keeps her hooks under single entry system. From the following information, prepare statement of Profit and Loss and a Revised Statement of Affairs as on 31^st March 2018.

During the year Sonali withdrew ₹ 500 per month from the business for her private use and also used goods worth ₹ 1,000 for household purpose. She had brought in ₹ 5,000 as additional capital during the year.
Adjustments:
1) Furniture is to be depreciated by 10% p.a.
2) Provide Interest on Capital at 5% p.a. on opening capital only.
3) PBD is to be created at 5% p.a. on debtors.
4) Commission Receivable ₹ 1,200
Answer:

Section – E

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions. Each carries FIVE marks: ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 33.
Write the accounting Equation for each item and find out the missing figures

Answer:
(a) Capital = Assets – Liabilities
= 150,000-60,000 = 90,000
(b) Liabilities = Assets – Capital
= 1,00,000-55,000 = 45,000
(c) Assets = Liabilities + Capital
= 34,000 + 46,000 = 80,000

Question 34.
Prepare a Machinery Account for two years with imaginary figures under written down value method.
Answer:

Question 35.
Prepare a Specimen of Promissory Note.
Answer:

Students can Download 1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 6 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Accountancy Model Questions with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 6 with Answers

Time: 3.15 minutes
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions:

1. All sub-questions of section – A should be answered continuously at one place.
2. Provide Working notes wherever necessary.
3. 15 minutes of extra time have been allotted for the candidates to read the questions
4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate full marks.

Section – A

I. Answer any EIGHT of the following questions. Each carries ONE mark: ( 8 × 1 = 8 )

Question 1.
Recording is made in a _________ Order.
Answer:
Chronological

Question 2.
A business in a separate entity from its owners for accounting (Stale true or false)
Answer:
True

Question 3.
What is Journal?
Answer:
Journal is a basic book of original entry in this book transaction is made in Chronological order.

Question 4.
What is balancing of an account?
Answer:
Balancing of an account is the process of finding out the difference between the Total of the debit side and credit side of an account.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Compensating error?
Answer:
When two or more errors are committed in such a way that the net effect of these on the debits and credits of account is nil.

Question 6.
Bills of exchange are covered under:
(a) Indian Contract Act, 1872
(b) Negotiable Instrument Act, 1981
(c) Sale of Goods Act, 1930
(d) Companies Act, 1956
Answer:
(b) Negotiable Instrument Act, 1981

Question 7.
Closing stock is values at _________.
(a) Cost price
(b) Market price
(c) Sales price
(d) Cost price or Market price whichever is less
Answer:
(d) Cost price or market price whichever is less.

Question 8.
Incomplete records are popularly know as _________ Entry system
Answer:
Single

Question 9.
Expand CPU.
Answer:
CPU = Central Processing Unit.

Question 10.
State any one accounting package.
Answer:
Tally ERP.

Section – B

II. Answer any FIVE of the following questions. Each carries TWO marks: ( 5 × 2 = 10 )

Question 11.
State any two users of accounting.
Answer:
Two users of accounting information are.

1. Investors
2. Creditors

Question 12.
What do you mean by accounting concepts?
Answer:
Accounting concepts refers to the necessary assumption and ideas which are Fundamental to accounting practice.

Question 13.
Mention any two features of Ledger.
Answer:
Two features of ledger are:

1. It is a book of final entry.
2. It is the principal book of accounts.

Question 14.
What is Bank reconciliation statement?
Answer:
Bank reconciliation statement is a statement which is prepared to reconcile the difference between bank balance as per passbook and bank balance of cash book.

Question 15.
State any two methods of preparing Trial balance.
Answer:

1. Total method
2. Balance method

Question 16.
Machinery purchased for Rs. 12,000 has a estimated life of 10 years and the scrap value is Rs. 2,000 find out the annual depreciation if straight line method is adopted.
Answer:

Question 17.
State any two objectives of preparing financial statements.
Answer:

1. To present a true and fair view of the financial performance of business.
2. To present a true and fair view of the financial position of business.

Question 18.
State any two elements of Computer.
Answer:

1. Hardware
2. Software

Section – C

III. Answer any FOUR of the following questions. Each carries SIX marks : ( 4 × 6 = 24 )

Question 19.
Prepare accounting equation from the following
(a) Ramesh started business with cash 2,50,000
(b) He purchased Furniture for cash 35,000
(c) He paid commission 2,000
(d) He purchased goods on credit 40,000
(e) He sold goods (costing Rs,20,000) for cash 26,000
(f) He paid salary to workers 2,000
Answer:

Question 20.
Enter the following transactions in an Analytical petty cash Book under imprest System

Answer:

Question 21.
Enter the following transactions in the sales book 2016:
Sept 01 Sold to Arun and co 20 bags of rice @Rs.5,000/-per bag.
Sept 10 Mohan bought from us 10 bags of sugar of Rs 3,000/- per bag at 5% trade discount.
Sept 15 Sold to Raju 2 bags of Wheat at Rs.2,000/- per bag for cash.
Sept 20 Sold to Bombay refreshments 5 bags of wheat flour at Ks. 700/- per bag at 10% discount.
Sept 25 Rahul bought from us 8kg Tea powder at Rs. 800/- per kg.
Answer:

Question 22.
Rectify the following errors.
a) An amount of Rs 1.000 spent repairs to machinery has been debited to machinery account.
b) An amount of Rs. 2,000 with drawn by the proprietor has been debited to office expenses account.
c) A sum of Rs.3,000 received from Radha has been credited to Sudha.
d) An amount paid towards salary of Rs.4,000 has been debited to Rent account.
e) Extension to building Rs.50,000 has been debited to repairs account.
f) Furniture purchased for Rs.10.000 has been debited to purchases account.
Answer:

Question 23.
From the following particulars, prepare Trading A/c of Amitab Traders for the year ending 31 March 2015.

Particulars	Amount
Stock as on 01-04-2014 Sales during the year Purchases Wages paid Closing stock on 31-3-2015	10,000 75,000 70,000 5,000 25,000

Answer:

Question 24.
From the following information, find out cash received from Debtors.
Debtors as on 01/04/2015 – ₹ 17.000
Debtors as on 31/03/2016 – ₹ 25.500
Credit sales during the year – ₹ 95,000
Bills accepted by customers – ₹ 15.000
Sales returns – ₹ 2,000
Answer:

Question 25.
Explain any six advantages of computerized accounting system.
Answer:
Advantages of computerised accounting system

1. A speed – accounting data is processed faster by using a computerised accounting system than it is achieved through manual efforts.
2. Accuracy the possibility of errors is eliminated in a computerized accounting system is less because the primary accounting data is entered once for all subsequent usage and process in preparing.
3. Upto date information the accounting records in a computerised accounting system are updated accounting as and when accounting data is entered & stored.
4. Legibility the date displayed on computer monitor is Legible.
5. Efficiency the computer – based accounting system ensure better use of resources and time.
6. Storage and retrieval the computerised accounting system allows the users to store date in a manner that does not require a large number of physical space.

Section – D

IV. Answer any FOUR of the following questions. Each carries TWELVE marks: ( 4 × 12 = 48 )

Question 26.
Journalise the following transactions in the books of Shri Bharat:

Answer:

Question 27.
Enter the following transactions in Double Column Cash Book M/s Ambica Traders for the month of July, 2016.


Answer:

Question 28.
From the following particulars, prepare bank Reconciliation statement as on 31-03-2017.

Answer:

Question 29.
On 01/04/2013 Tata Co. Ltd., purchased a Machinery ‘A’ costing Rs. 1,00,000 on 30/09/2015 the Machinery A was sold for Rs.80,000. On same date a new Machinery ‘B’ was purchased for Rs.50,000. The firm charges depreciation @10% p.a under Diminishing Balance Method accounts are closed on 31^st March every year.
Prepare : 1. Machinery A/c and 2. Depreciation A/c for first 4 years.
Answer:

Question 30.
Anaml sold goods to Sadananda on credit Ks.30,000 and drew a 3 months bill on sadananda. And lie accepted the bill and returned it to Anand. On the same day. the bill was.cndorscd to Swami. On the due Date, the hill was dishonoured and the noting charges paid by swami Rs.200.
Pass the necessary Journal Entries in the books of Anand. Sadananda and Swami.
Answer:

Question 31.
From the following Trial balance, prepare trading and profit and loss account or the year ending 31-03-2017 and Balance Sheet as on that date.

Adjustments:
1. C losing Stock was valued at Rs.20,000
2. Insurance prepaid to the extent of Rs.200
3. Outstanding salary Rs.400
4. Depreciate Building by 5%
5. Provide P.D.D at 5% on Debtors.
Answer:

Question 32.
Mr. Aniket kep this books under incomplete records. He provides you the following information.

During the year he withdrew Cash Rs. 13,000 and goods worth Rs. 7,000 for his personal use. He has also introduced Rs. 12,000 as an additional capital on 01-07-2015.
Adjustments:
1. Appreciate Building by 20%
2. Provide for Bad and Doubtful debts at 5% on Debtors
3. Allow interest on capital at 12% p.a
4. Depreciate Machinery by Rs.3,000
5. Salary due but not paid Rs. 1,000
Prepare:-
1. Statement of Affairs
2. Statement of profit or loss
3.Revised Statement of Affairs.
Answer:

Section – E (Practical Oriented Questions)

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions. Each carries FIVE marks: ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 33.
Draw a Block diagram of main components of Computer.
Answer:

Question 34.
Prepare a Trial Balance with 10 imaginary figures.
Answer:

Question 35.
Draw a Block diagram of main components of Computer.
Answer:

Students can Download 1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Accountancy Model Questions with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 with Answers

Time: 3.15 minutes
Max. Marks: 100

Instructions:

1. All sub-questions of section – A should be answered continuously at one place.
2. Provide Working notes wherever necessary.
3. 15 minutes of extra time have been allotted for the candidates to read the questions
4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate full marks.

Part – A

I. Answer any EIGHT of the following questions. Each carries ONE mark: ( 8 × 1 = 8 )

Question 1.
Accounting begins with (he identification of transactions and ends with the preparation of ________ Statements.
Answer:
Financial

Question 2.
A concept that a business enterprise will not be sold or liquidated in the near future is known as:
(a) Going Concern
(b) Economic Entity
(c) Monetary In it
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Going Concern.

Question 3.
The process of recording transactions in Journal is called ________.
Answer:
Journalising.

Question 4.
Ledger records transactions in ________.
(a) Chronological order.
(b) Analytical order.
(c) Both a and b above.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Chronological order.

Question 5.
Trial Balance is a Statement (State True or False).
Answer:
True

Question 6.
A bill is drawn an 1-04-2017 for 3 months. Find out the date of Maturity.
Answer:
The maturity date of Bill is 3-6-2017.

Question 7.
How do you treat interest on capital while preparing Profit and loss Account?
Answer:
Interest on capital is debited in profit and loss account.

Question 8.
Why the Statement of Affairs is prepared?
Answer:
To find out capital i.e., both opening as well as closing capital.

Question 9.
Expand AIS.
Answer:
Accounting Information System.

Question 10.
Give an example for Accounting Software.
Answer:
Tally, ERP.

Section – B

II. Answer any FIVE of the following questions. Each carries TWO marks: ( 5 × 2 = 10 )

Question 11.
Detine Accounting .
Answer:
According to American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA), “Accounting is the art of recording, classifying and summarising in a significant manner and in terms of money, transactions and events which are in part at least of a financial character and interpreting the results thereof’.

Question 12.
What is Double Entry System?
Answer:
The system of recording 2 aspects (i.e., debit and credit) of every transaction in the books of accounts is known as double entry system.

Question 13.
State the Rules of Debit and Credit of Assets Account.
Answer:
Debit what comes in and credit what goes out.

Question 14.
Why the Bank Reconciliation Statement is prepared?
Answer:
To reconcile, two Balance i.e.. Balance as per cash book. Balance as per pass book.

Question 15.
Purchase of Machinery for 25,000 has been entered in the Purchases Book. Give the Rectifying Entry.
Answer:

(Being machinery purchased on credit wrongly entered in purchase book know rectified)

Question 16.
Name any two example of ‘Provision’.
Answer:

1. Provision for depreciation
2. Provision for taxation.

Question 17.
Give an example for Closing Entry.
Answer:

(Being opening stock a/c closed by transferring to debit side of trading account)

Question 18.
What are the functional components of Computer System?
Answer:

1. Input unit
2. Central processing unit
3. Output unit

Section – C

III. Answer any FOUR of the following questions. Each carries SIX marks : ( 4 × 6 = 24 )

Question 19.
Classify the following Accounts into Assets, Liabilities, Capital, Revenue/Gains & Expenses/Losses:

Answer:
Cash a/c – Asset – Real A/c
Purchase a/c – Asset – Real A/c
Computer a/c – liability – personal a/c
Building a/c – Asset – Real a/c
Salary a/c – Expenses – Nominal A/c
Interest on investment a/c – Income – nominal a/c
Sales -a/c Assets – Real a/c
Drawings a/c – Liability – personal a/c
Outstanding salary a/c – Liability a/c
Purchase return a/c – tosses a/c
Bills receivable a/c – Revenue a/c

Question 20.
Enter the following transactions in an Analytical Petty Cash Book:

Answer:

Question 21.
From the following transactions, prepare Purchases Book:

Answer:

Question 22.
From the following ledger balances, prepare the Trial Balance as on 31/031/2017:

Answer:

Question 23.
Compute cost of goods sold for the year 2017:

Answer:
Calculation of cost of goods sold for the year 2017:
Cost of goods sold = Opening stock + Purchases + Direct expenses – Closing stock
= 30,000 + 1,50,000 + (10,000 + 10,000) – 40,000
= 30,000 + 1,50,000 + 20,000 – 40,000 = 2,00,000 – 40,000
Cost of goods sold = ₹ 1,60,000
Note : Direct expenses includes both wages as well as carriage inwards.

Question 24.
Kind out the Credit Sales by preparing Total Debtors A/c:

Answer:

Question 25.
Distinguish between Manual Accounting System and Computerised Accounting System.
Answer:
Manual accounting:

• The data recorded under manual accounting are visible.
• The trial of events under can be easily established.
• The data recorded in manual accounting are not subjected to the risk of manipulation.
• The cost of preparing statements and reports under the manual accounting system is high.
• In manual accounting system, accounting data cannot be adjusted to produce various special statement and reports.

Computerised accounting:

• The data stored in computerised accounting (i.e.) in computer) are not visible
• The trial of event cannot be established easily under computerised accounting.
• The data recorded in computerised accounting are subjected to the risk of manipulation.
• The cost of preparing statements and reports under computerised account will be low.
• In computerised accounting system, the accounting data can be easily adjusted to generate various special statement and reports.

Section – D

IV. Answer any FOUR of the following questions. Each carries TWELVE marks: ( 4 × 12 = 48 )

Question 26.
Journalise the following transactions in the books of Shri Ganesh:

Answer:

Question 27.
From the following; transactions, prepare Double Column Cash Book.

Answer:

Question 28.
From the following information, prepare Bank Reconciliation Statement:

Answer:

Question 29.
On 01/04/2013, Santosh Company Ltd. purchased a Plant costing ₹85,000 and spent ₹15,000 for its erection. On 31/03/2015, the Plant was sold for ₹75,000. On 01/04/2015,a new Plant was purchased for ₹50,000. The firm charges depreciation @ 10% PA under Straight Line Method. Accounts are closed on 31^st March every year.
Prepare : 1. Plant A/c and    2. Provision for Depreciation A/c for first 4 years.
Answer:

Question 30.
On 01/04/2017, Prakash drew a Bill on Suresh for ₹50,000 payable after 3 months. Suresh accepted the Bill and returned it to Prakash. On the same dale, Prakash endorsed the Bill to Ramesh: on the above date, the Bill is discounted by Ramesh @ 12% pa. On the due date the Bill is honoured.
Pass the Journal Entries in the books of Prakash, Suresh and Ramesh.
Answer:



Note : No Journal entry in the books of endorser (Prakash) when the bill is honoured at the date of maturity.

Question 31.
From the following ledger balances and adjustments, prepare Trading A/C, Profit and Loss A/c and Balance Sheet.

Adjustments:
1. Closing Stock was valued at ? 4,000.
2. Depreciate furniture by 10% pa. and building by 15% pa.
3. Bad Debts written off?500.
4. Salary Outstanding ? 1.000
Answer:

Question 32.
Anand keeps his hooks under Single Entry System : From the following information, prepare Statement of Profit and loss and Revised Statement of Affairs as on 31/03/2017.

During the year, Anand withdrew ₹10,000 for his personal use and introduced a further capital of ₹7,500.
Adjustments:
1. Depreciate Machinery by 10% pa & Furniture by 12% pa.
2. Provide for Bad and Doubtful Debts @5% on Sundry Debtors
3. Prepaid Insurance ₹500.
4. Legal Expenses due but not paid ₹1,000.
Answer:

Students can Download 1st PUC Physics Model Question Paper 5 for Practice, Karnataka 1st PUC Physics Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Physics Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. All parts are compulsory.
2. Draw relevant figure / diagram wherever necessary.
3. Numerical problems should be solved with relevant formulae.

Part – A

I. Answer the following questions. ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
Write the S I unit of momentum.
Answer:
kg ms^-1

Question 2.
Is scalar multiplied by a vector, a vector or a scalar?
Answer:
It is a vector

Question 3.
Write an expression for position vector of centre mass of system of two particles lie on x – axis
Answer:
X = \(\frac{m_{1} x_{1}+m_{2} x_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\)

Question 4.
Mention the expression for work done by a force in vector form.
Answer:
W = \(\vec{F} \cdot \vec{S}\)

Question 5.
State Hook’s law.
Answer:
With in elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to strain.

Question 6.
Among rubber and steel which one has more elasticity?
Answer:
Steel.

Question 7.
What is ideal gas?
Answer:
A gas which obeys both Boyle’s law and Charle’s law is called ideal gas.

Question 8.
Define angle of contact.
Answer:
It is an angle between the tangent drawn to the surface of liquid at the point of contact with the surface of contact with in the liquid.

Question 9.
State the first law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
The law stats that heat energy given to the system is equal to sum of the increase in internal energy and work done by the system.

Question 10.
Mention any one applications of beats.
Answer:

1. Beats are used to tune the musical instruments.
2. They are used to detect the poisonous gases in mines, or any use.

Part – B

II. Answer any FIVE of the following questions. ( 5 × 2 = 10 )

Question 11.
Mention any two basic forces in nature.

Question 12.
Mention two uses of dimensional analysis

Question 13.
Distinguish between distance (path length) and displacement.
Answer:

Distance or path length	Displacement
1. It is the length of the path along which the body moved.	1. It is the shortest distance between initial final positions.
2. It a scalar.	2. It is a vector.
3. It cannot be negative.	3. It can be negative, positive or zero.

Question 14.
What is centripetal acceleration? Give the expression for it.
Answer:
The acceleration of a body towards the centre of a circular path along which the body moves.
a = ν² / r = r²ω

Question 15.
Mention any two methods of reducing friction.

Question 16.
Determine the volume contraction of the solid copper cube, 10 cm on its edge, when subjected to hydraulic pressure of 7.0 × 10⁶ Pa. (Given bulk modulus of copper = 140 × 10⁹ Nm^-2).
Answer:
\(B=\frac{P}{\frac{\Delta V}{V}}=\frac{P V}{\Delta V} \Rightarrow \Delta V=\frac{P V}{B}=\frac{7 \times 10^{6} \times 10^{3} \times 10^{-6}}{140 \times 10^{9}}\)
= 0.05 × 10^-3
ΔV = 5 × 10^-5 m³

Question 17.
What is specific heat capacity of a substance? Write the relation between specific heat capacities of gases.
Answer:
It is the quantity of heat required to raise temperature of one kg of substance through one degree Celsius.
C_p – C_v = R

Question 18.
On an average the human heart is found to beat 75 times in minute. Calculate its frequency.
Answer:
f = number of oscillations /time
f = \(\frac{75}{60}\) = 1.25 Hz.

Part – C

III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions. ( 5 × 3 = 15 )

Question 19.
State and explain Law of triangle of vectors. When will be the resultant of two given vectors is maximum?

Question 20:
State Newton’s second law of motion and hence derive F = ma.

Question 21.
Prove work- energy theorem for a constant force.

Question 22.
Derive an expressions orbital speed of the earth’s satellite.

Question 23.
State and explain Bernoulies theorem.

Question 24.
Write any three properties of heat radiation.

Question 25.
State the law of equipartition of energy. Write an expression for the energy associated with diatomic molecule.
Answer:
Energy associated with distance molecule is V = 5 \(\left(\frac{1}{2} R T\right)\)

Question 26.
Discuss the modes of vibrations in closed path.

Part-D

IV. Answer any TWO of the following questions. ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 27.
Derive x = v₀t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at² by graphical method.

Question 28.
State and prove the law of conservation of linear momentum in case of collision of two bodies.

Question 29.
Derive the relation between torque and angular momentum of a particle.

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions. ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 30.
State and explain Kepler’s laws of planetary motion.

Question 31.
Write a note on kelvin scale of temperature.
Answer:
From Charles law V = V₀ (1 + αt) … (1)
If t = -273°C, then(1) ⇒ V = V₀ \(\left(1-\frac{273}{273}\right)\), V = 0
Volume of gas becomes zero at -273°C theoretically which is shown in the above fig. But practically all known gases become liquids before attaining this temperature (-273°C). From Charles law this is the lowest possible temperature.

Lord Kelvin made a scale by taking -273°C as lowest temperature. It is called absolute scale of temperature. The lowest temperature is called absolute zero (0K = -273°C). The temperature on the Kelvin scale is called absolute temperate. The width of each degree on the Kelvin scale is equal to the width of each degree on Celsius scale. The relation between Celsius scale temperature (t) & Kelvin scale temperature (T) is given by
T = (t + 273) K

Question 32.
Derive an expression for period of simple pendulum.

VI. Answer any THREE of the following questions. ( 3 × 5 = 15 )

Question 33.
The ceiling of a long hall is 25 m high. What is the maximum horizontal distance that a ball thrown with a speed of 40 ms^-1 can go without hitting the ceiling of the hall?
Answer:
h = \(\frac{u^{2} \sin ^{2} \theta}{2 g}\)
25 = \(\frac{(40)^{2} \sin ^{2} \theta}{2 \times 9 \cdot 8}\)
∴ θ = sin^-1 (0.5534) = 33.60°
Horizontal range R = \(\frac{u^{2} \sin 2 \theta}{g}\) = 150.33 m

Question 34.
A pump on the ground floor of a building can pump up water to fill a tank of volume 30 m³ in 15 min. If the tank is 40 m above the ground, and the efficiency of the pump is 30%, how much electric power is consumed by the pump?
Answer:
P₀ = \(\frac{\text { Work done }}{\text { Time }}=\frac{m g h}{t}\)
= \(\frac{30 \times 10^{3} \times 9 \cdot 8 \times 40}{900}\) = 13.067 × 10³ W
For input power P_i, efficiency η is given by the relation:
n = \(\frac{P_{0}}{P_{i}}\) = 30%
P_i = \(\frac{13 \cdot 067}{30}\) × 100 × 10³
=0.436 × 10⁵ W = 43.6 kw

Question 35.
A 5 kg wheel is given an acceleration of 10 rad/sec² by an applied torque of 2 N-m. Calculate its (a) moment of inertia and (b) radius of gyration.
Answer:
I = \(\frac{\tau}{\alpha}=\frac{2}{10}\)
I = 0.2 kgm²
And I = MK²
K = 0.2m

Question 36.
A steam engine delivers 5.4 × 10⁸ J of work per minute and serves 3.6 × 10⁹ J of heat per minute from its boiler. What is the efficiency of the engine? How much heat is wasted per minute.
Answer:
η = \(\frac{w}{q_{1}}\) = 5.4 × 10⁸ / 3.6 × 10⁹ = 15%
Q₂ = Q₁ – W
= 36 × 10⁸ – 5.4 × 10⁸ = 30.6 × 10⁸ J

Question 37.
A train standing at the outer signal of railway station blows a whistle of frequency 400Hz in still air. (i) What is the frequency of the whistle for a platform observer when the train (a) approaches the platform with a speed of 10m/s. (b) recedes from the platform with a speed of 10m/s? (ii) What is the speed of the sound in each case, the speed of sound in still can be taken as 340m/s.
Answer:
f’ = \(\frac{f v}{\left(v-v_{s}\right)}\)
=400 (340-0) / 340-10) = 412 Hz
f” = \(\frac{f v}{\left(v+v_{s}\right)}\)
f” = 400(340) / (340+10) = 389 Hz

Karnataka 1st PUC Physics Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. All parts are compulsory.
2. Draw relevant figure / diagram wherever necessary.
3. Numerical problems should be solved with relevant formulae.

Part – A

I. Answer the following. ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
Mention the SI unit of luminous intensity.
Answer:
Candela.

Question 2.
Define null vector.
Answer:
A vector having zero magnitude.

Question 3.
What is potential energy?
Answer:
Energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position or configuration.

Question 4.
Write the expression for moment of inertia of a solid sphere of radius R about its diameter.
Answer:
I = \(\frac{2}{5}\) MR²

Question 5.
Write the distance of the geostationary satellite from the center of the earth.
Answer:
42200 km

Question 6.
State Hooke’s law.
Answer:
Within the elastic limit, the stress in a body is directly proportional to strain.

Question 7.
What is the principle behind the uplift of an aeroplane?
Answer:
Bernoulli’s principle.

Question 8.
Give an example for Greenhouse gas.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide methane, chlorofloro carbon etc.

Question 9.
What is the physical significance of Zeroth law of thermodynamics?
Answer:
Temperature

Question 10.
Which quantity remains unchanged in isochoric process?
Answer:
Volume

Part – B

II. Answer any FIVE of the following questions. ( 5 × 2 = 10 )

Question 11.
Name any two fundamental forces in nature.

Question 12.
Write two applications of dimensional analysis.
Answer:

1. Checking the dimensional consistency of equations
2. Deducing relation among the physical quantities

Question 13.
Distinguish between ‘path length’ and ‘displacement’.
Answer:

Path length	Displacement
1. It is a scalar	1. It is a vector
2. Is always positive	2. Positive or negative or zero

Question 14.
Write the equation for the trajectory of a projectile motion. What is the nature of its trajectory?
Answer:
y = x tanθ – \(\frac{g x^{2}}{v_{0}^{2} \cos ^{2} \theta_{0}}\) and trajectory is parabola.

Question 15.
State the two laws of friction.
Answer:

1. Limiting friction is independent of area of surface of contact of two bodies
2. Magnitude of limiting friction is directly proportional to normal reaction.

Question 16.
Write the equation for escape velocity and explain the terms used in the equation.
Answer:
Escape velocity : v_e = \(\sqrt{2 R g}\) or v₀ = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 G M}{R}}\)
R is radius of the earth, G is gravitational constant and M is mass of the earth.

Question 17.
Where is the velocity of the body maximum and minimum in case of simple harmonic motion?
Answer:

1. Mean position or equilibrium position
2. Extreme position

Question 18.
What harmonics are present in a) an open pipe b) a closed pipe?
Answer:
(a) All harmonics
(b) Odd harmonics

Part – C

III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions. ( 5 × 3 = 15 )

Question 19.
Define centripetal acceleration? Write the expression for it and explain the terms.
Answer:
Definition:
\(a_{c}=\frac{v^{2}}{r}\)
Where v is velocity and r is radius of the circle.

Question 20.
Deduce f = ma, using Newton’s second law of motion.

Question 21.
What is meant by collision? Distinguish between elastic and inelastic collision.

Question 22.
Draw stress-strain curve. Show yield point and fracture point.

Question 23.
Mention three applications of capillarity.
Answer:

1. Rise of oil through wick of the lamp
2. Rise of water in the plant through xylem in plants
3. Absorption of ink by blotting paper/chalk piece

Question 24.
Derive σ_v = \(\frac{1}{T}\) for ideal gas.

Question 25.
Draw schematic diagram of the refrigerator. Define its coefficient of performance.

Question 26.
Give the Newton’s formula for the speed of sound in air and hence explain Laplace’s correction.
Answer:
According to Newton v = \(\sqrt{\frac{p}{\rho}}\)

Part – D

IV. Answer any TWO of the following questions. ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 27.
What is v-t graph? Derive the equation x = v₀t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at² using v – t graph.

Question 28.
State and prove the law of conservation of linear momentum from Newton’s third law of motion.

Question 29.
Define torque and hence derive \(\frac{d \vec{l}}{d t}=\vec{\tau}\)

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions. ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 30.
Derive the expression tor the variation of the acceleration due to gravity with altitude.

Question 31.
Explain Carnot cycle with P-V diagram.

Question 32.
Derive the expression for the time period of the simple pendulum.

VI. Answer any THREE of the following questions. ( 3 × 5 = 15 )

Question 33.
A ball is thrown with the velocity of a 39.2 m/s at an angle of 30° with the horizontal. Calculate the maximum height, time of flight and horizontal range of the projectile.
Answer:
Maximum height, H_m = \(\frac{v_{0}^{2} \sin ^{2} \theta}{2 g}\) = 19.6 m
time of flight, t_f = \(\frac{2 v_{0} \sin \theta}{g}\) = 4s
Horizontal range, R= \(\frac{v_{0}^{2} \sin 2 \theta}{g}\) = 135.79 m

Question 34.
A bullet of mass 50 gram moving with a velocity of 400 m/s strikes a wall and goes out from the other side with a velocity of 100 m/s. Calculate the work done in passing through the wall.
Answer:
Work done W = KE₂ – KE₁
KE₁ = \(\frac{1}{2} m_{1} v_{1}^{2}\) =4000 J
KE₂ = \(\frac{1}{2} m v_{2}^{2}\) = 250 J
Arriving at final answer
W = KE₂ – KE₁ = 4000 – 250 = 3750 J

Question 35.
Three pieces of iron of uniform thickness and mass m , m and 2m respectively are placed at the three corners of the triangle having co-ordinate (2.5, 1.5),(3.5, 1.5) and (3, 3) respectively. Find the center of mass of the system.
Answer:
x = \(\frac{m_{1} x_{1}+m_{2} x_{2}+m_{3} x_{3}}{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}}\) = 3m
y = \(\frac{m_{1} y_{1}+m_{2} y_{2}+m_{3} y_{3}}{m_{1}+m_{2}+m_{3}}\) = 2.25 m
Writing the co-ordinates of the centre of mass

Question 36.
How much it is required to convert 10 gram of ice at – 5° into steam at 100°C. Given specific heat of ice 2.1 J g^-10 C^-1. Latent heat of steam = 2268 J g^-1 and latent hear of fusion of ice is 336 J/g. Specific heat of water = 4.2 J g^-10 C^-1.
Answer:
Q₁ = mS_i   ΔT = 10 × 2.1 × 5 = 105 J
Q₂ = mL_f = 10 × 336 = 3360 J
Q₃ =mS_w   ΔT = 10 × 4.2 × 100 = 4200 J
Q₄ =mL_v =10 × 2268 = 22680 J
Q = Q₁ + Q₂ + Q₃ + Q₄
= 105 + 3360 + 4200 + 22680 = 30345 J

Question 37.
The apparent frequency of a note when listener moves towards a stationary source with velocity 40 m/s is 200 Hz. When he moves away from the same source with same speed the apparent frequency of note is 160 Hz. Calculate velocity of sound in air.
Answer:
When the listener move towards source
\(r^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v+v_{0}}{v}\right) v\) …(1)
When the listener move away from the source \(v^{\prime \prime}=\left(\frac{v-v_{0}}{v}\right) v\) …(2)
(1) ÷ (2),
\(\frac{v^{\prime}}{v^{\prime \prime}}=\left(\frac{v+v_{0}}{v-v_{0}}\right)\)
Solving and finding v =360 ms^-1

Karnataka 1st PUC Physics Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. All parts are compulsory.
2. Draw relevant figure / diagram wherever necessary.
3. Numerical problems should be solved with relevant formulae.

Part – A

I. Answer the following ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
Write the dimensional formula for linear momentum.
Answer:
M¹L¹T^-1

Question 2.
What is unit vector?
Answer:
It is the vector having unit magnitude.

Question 3.
Define work done by the force.
Answer:
Work is said to be done when force is applied on the body and the body displaces in the direction of applied force. w= \(\vec{F} \cdot \vec{S}\)

Question 4.
Define radius of gyration.
Answer:
It is the distance between the point at which the entire mass of the body is concentrated from the axis of rotation.

Question 5.
What is the weight of a body at the centre of the earth?
Answer:
zero

Question 6.
Name the SI unit of stress.
Answer:
Nm^-2

Question 7.
What is streamline flow?
Answer:
It is the motion in which velocity of all the particles of fluid is same at a given point.

Question 8.
Mention the degrees of freedom for a triatomic gas molecule.
Answer:
6

Question 9.
Write Newton’s formula for speed of sound in air.
Answer:
\(V=\sqrt{\frac{p}{\rho}}\)

Question 10.
Define amplitude of a wave.
Answer:
It is the maximum displacement of oscillating particle on either side of its mean position.

Part – B

II. Answer any FIVE of the following questions. ( 5 × 2 = 10 )

Question 11.
Name any two fundamental forces in nature.

Question 12.
Mention any uses of dimensional analysis.
Answer:

1. To check the correctness of an equation.
2. To derive the relation between various physical quantities.

Question 13.
State triangle law of vector addition.

Question 14.
Mention any two methods of reducing friction.

Question 15.
Define average velocity and instantaneous velocity.

Question 16.
State and explain first law of thermodynamics.

Question 17.
Write the relation between g and G and explain the terms.
Answer:
g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)
Explanation of terms

Question 18.
Mention an expression for the period of oscillation of a spring and explain the terms.
Answer:
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}\)
Explanation of terms

Part – C

III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions. ( 5 × 3 = 15 )

Question 19.
Obtain an expression for time of flight of a projectile.

Question 20.
Using Newton’s second law of motion, arrive at F = ma,

Question 21.
Derive an expression for kinetic energy.

Question 22.
Mention the three types of moduli of elasticity.
Answer:

1. Young’s Modulus (Y)
2. Bulk Modulus (B)
3. Rigidity modulus (R)

Question 23.
State and explain Bernoulli’s principle.

Question 24.
Define (a) Specific heat of gas at constant volume (b) Specific heat of gas at constant pressure (c) Latent heat of fusion.

Question 25.
Write any three postulates of kinetic theory of gasses.

Question 26.
Give any three differences between progressive wave and a stationary wave.
Answer:

Progressive wave	Stationary wave
1. The wave travel forward with a velocity called wave velocity.	1. The wave do not travel in any direction.
2. There is transfer of energy along the direction of propagation of wave.	2. There is no transfer of energy across any section of the medium.
3. No particle of the medium is permanently at rest.	3. Particles at nodes are always at rest.

Part – D

IV. Answer any TWO of the following questions. ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 27.
What is uniform circular motion? Derive an expression for centripetal acceleration.

Question 28.
State and explain a) Parallel axis theorem and b) perpendicular axes theorem.

Question 29.
Derive an expression for maximum speed of a car moving on banked circular road.
Answer:
Figure
N cos θ = F_s sin θ + mg
N = \(\frac{m g}{\cos \theta-\mu_{s} \sin \theta}\)
v = \(\frac{r g\left(\sin \theta+\mu_{s} \cos \theta\right)}{\cos \theta-\mu_{s} \sin \theta}\)
v = \(\sqrt{\frac{r g\left(\tan \theta+\mu_{s}\right)}{\left(1-\mu_{s} \tan \theta\right)}}\)

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions. ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 30.
Define Orbital speed of a satellite. Obtain an expression for the orbital speed of satellite.

Question 31.
State and explain the Newton’s law of cooling.

Question 32.
What is SHM? Write its characteristics and give its graphical representation.

VI. Answer any THREE of the following questions. ( 3 × 5 = 15 )

Question 33.
A stone is dropped from top of a tower 100 m height. At the same instant another stone is thrown vertically upward from the base of the tower with the velocity of 25 m/s. When and where will the two stones meet?
Given g = 10 m/s².
Answer:
For Stone A, u = 0, S = x and a = + g = 10 m/s²
Formula s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²
Arriving at x = 5t² —(l)
For stone B s = 100 – x, a = – g and u = 25 m/s
Arriving at 100 – x = 25t – 5t² …(2)
Obtaining t = 4 second
Obtaining x = 80 m

Question 34.
A bullet of mass 0.015 kg strikes a metal plate of thickness 10 cm with a velocity of 400 m/s and emerge from it with a velocity of 260 m/s. Find the average resistance offered by the plate to the motion of bullet.
Answer:
Formula work done = \(\frac{1}{2} m u^{2}-\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}\)
Substitution and obtaining w = 693 J
W=FS
F = 6930 N

Question 35.
A fly wheel of mass 12.5 kg and diameter 0.36 m rotating at 90 rpm has its speed increased to 720 rpm in 8s. Find the torque applied to flywheel.
Answer:
ω₁ = 2πf₁ = 3π rad/sec
ω₂ = 2πf₂ = 24 π rad/sec
α = ω₂ – ω₁ / t = 8.243 rad/s²
τ = 1α = (Mr² / 2) α
τ = 1.669 Nm

Question 36.
A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 0.3, when the temperature of the sink is 350K. Find the change in temperature of the source when the efficiency becomes 0.5.
Answer:
η₁ = 1 – \(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}}\)
Solving for T = 500 K
η₂ = 1 – \(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}^{2}}\)
Solving for T₁¹= 700K
Change in temperature = 200 K

Question 37.
A train is moving at speed of 72 kmph towards a station, is sounding a whistle of frequency 600 Hz. What are the apparent frequencies of the whistle as heard by a man on the plot form when the train (a) approaches him (b) recedes from him? (speed of sound in air = 340 m/s)
Answer:
Formula
a) f′ = \(\left(\frac{V}{V-V_{s}}\right)\) f
obtaining f = 637.5 Hz
b) f′ = \(\left(\frac{V}{V+V_{s}}\right)\) f
Obtaining f = 566.7 Hz

Karnataka 1st PUC Physics Model Question Paper 4 with Answers

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. All parts are compulsory.
2. Draw relevant figure / diagram wherever necessary.
3. Numerical problems should be solved with relevant formulae.

Part – A

I. Answer the following ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
How many meters make one parsec?
Answer:
3.08 × 10¹⁶ m.

Question 2.
What is unit vector?
Answer:
A vector whose magnitude is equal to one.

Question 3.
When does the work done by a force is zero?
Answer:
If the force acts at angle of 90° or if the displacement is zero.

Question 4.
Define torque.
Answer:
The rotating effect of the applied force is called torque.

Question 5.
Mention the value of escape speed of an earth satellite?
Answer:
11.2 km/s

Question 6.
State Pascal’s law.
Answer:
It states that if change in pressure is produced in any part of an enclosed fluid (liquid or gas), the same is transmitted equally to all points of the fluid in all directions.

Question 7.
Give Principle of calorimetry.
Answer:
If there is no loss of heat energy by radiation, heat lost by hot body is equal to heat gained by cold body.

Question 8.
What is equation of state for adiabatic process?
Answer:
PV^ϒ = constant

Question 9.
Name a factor on which internal energy of the gas depends.
Answer:
Temperature/pressure.

Question 10.
What happens to the time period of a simple pendulum when it is taken from equator to the pole?
Answer:
2 seconds.

Part – B

II. Answer any FIVE of the following questions. ( 5 × 2 = 10 )

Question 11.
Mention any two basic forces in nature.
Answer:
Gravitational force, Electrostatic force and nuclear force.

Question 12.
The resistance R = \(\frac{v}{I}\) where V = (100 ± 5) volt and I = (10 ± 0.2)A, Find the percentage error in R.
Answer:
The percentage error in V is 5% and that in current is 2% therefore error in R is 5%+ 2% = 7%

Question 13.
Distinguish between distance and displacement.
Answer:

Distance	Displacement
1. It is the actual path length between the initial and final positions of the body during motion.	1. It is the shortest distance between the initial and final positions of the body during motion.
2. It is a scalar quantity.	2. It is a vector quantity.
3. It is never zero or negative, but is always positive.	3. It may be zero or positive or negative.

Question 14.
Write the expression for range of the projectile? For what angle of projection it is maximum?
Answer:
R = \(\frac{u^{2} \sin 2 \theta}{g}\) if θ = 45°.

Question 15.
Mention two methods of reducing friction.

Question 16.
Give two general conditions of equilibrium of a rigid body.

Question 17.
Define Gravitational potential energy: Give expression for it.
Answer:
Energy possessed by the body by virtue of its position or configuration.
P.E = mgh.

Question 18.
What is Doppler effect? Mention one of its applications.
Answer:
Apparent change in the frequency of source of sound due to relative motion between source and the observer.
It is used in SONAR, over speeding of the vehicles RADAR etc.

Part – C

III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions. ( 5 × 3 = 15 )

Question 19.
Derive the expression for centripetal acceleration.

Question 20.
State Newton’s first law of motion? Hence define force and inertia.

Question 21.
Prove work-energy theorem for a constant force.

Question 22.
Compare equations of linear and rotational motion.

Question 23.
Derivation of pressure at a point inside a liquid.

Question 24.
State Stefan’s law and Draw the intensity distribution graph of black body radiation.
Answer:
It states that the total amount of heat energy radiated per second per unit area of a perfect black body is directly proportional to the fourth power of the absolute temperature of the surface of the body.

Question 25.
Mention three postulates of Kinetic theory of gases.

Question 26.
Explain Laplace’s correction to Newton’s formula for the Speed of a sound wave.

Part – D

IV. Answer any TWO of the following questions. ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 27.
Derive x = v₀t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at² by graphical method.

Question 28.
Derive the expression for maximum safe speed of a vehicle on a banked road in circular motion.

Question 29.
State and explain the parallel axis and perpendicular axis theorem.

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions. ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 30.
State and explain Hooke’s law. Draw Stress – strain curve with labeling the parts.

Question 31.
Graphically represent the variation of coefficient of volume expansion of copper as a function of temperature. Derive α V = \(\frac{1}{T}\) for an ideal gas.

Question 32.
Derive the expression for time period of a simple pendulum.

VI. Answer any THREE of the following questions.( 3 × 5 = 15 )

Question 33.
A particle starts from origin at t = 0 with a velocity 5î ms^-1 and moves in x-y plane under the action of a force which produces a constant acceleration of (4î + 2\(\hat{j}\)) ms^-2.
(a) What is the y-coordinate of the particle at an instant when its x-coordinate is 84 m?
(b) What is the speed of the particle at this time?
Answer:
\(\vec{r}=\vec{v}_{0}+\frac{1}{2} \vec{a} t^{2}\)
X (t) = 5t + 2t²
Y(t) = 1.0 t²
t = 5.26 s
Y(t) = 27.7 m
V = 28.08 m/s

Question 34.
A pump on the ground floor of a building can pump up water to All a tank of volume 40m³ in 20 minutes if the tank is 30m above the ground and the efficiency of the pump is 60%. How much electric power is consumed by the pump? Given density of water = 1000 kg/m³ and acceleration due to gravity = 9.8m/s².
Answer:
\(P_{0}=\frac{W}{t}=\frac{m g h}{t}=\frac{\rho V m g h}{t}\)
Substitution
P₀ =9.8 × 10⁺³ W
P₀ = 9.8 kW / 0.6 = 16.33 kW

Question 35.
The planet Mars take 1.88 years to complete on revolution around the sun. The mean distance of the earth from the Sun is 1.5 x 10⁸ km. Calculate that of planet Mars?
Answer:
\(\frac{T^{2}}{a^{3}}\) = constant
\(\frac{T_{2}^{2}}{T_{1}^{2}}=\frac{a_{2}^{3}}{a_{1}^{3}}\)
Substitution
a₂ = 22.8 × 10¹⁰ m

Question 36.
A steam engine delivers 7.5 × 10⁸ J of work per minute and services 3.6 × 10⁹ J of heat per minute from its boiler. What is the efficiency of the engine? How much heat is wasted per minute? Also And the ratio of temperature of sink to the source.
Answer:
η = \(\frac{p_{0}}{p_{1}}\)
η = 0.21
P₀ = P_i = 47.5 MW
η = 1 – \(\frac{T_{1}}{T_{2}}\)
\(\frac{T_{1}}{T_{2}}\) = 0.79

Question 37.
A particle executes SHM along the x-axis, its displacement varies with the time according to the equation: x(t) = 5.4 cos (6πt + π/4), where x(t) in metre and t is in second. Determine the amplitude, frequency, period and initial phase of the motion.
Answer:
Determine the amplitude, frequency, period and initial phase of the motion.
x(t) = 5.4 cos (6πt + \(\frac{\pi}{4}\))
A = 5.4 m
n = 3 Hz
T = 0.333 s
Initial phase = Φ = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

Students can Download 1st PUC Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (North), Karnataka 1st PUC Physics Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (North)

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. All parts are compulsory.
2. Draw relevant figure / diagram wherever necessary.
3. Numerical problems should be solved with relevant formulae.

Part – A

I. Answer ALL the following questions: ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
How many kilograms is in one unified atomic mass unit?
Answer:
1 amu = 1.66 × 10^-27 kg.

Question 2.
State the law of triangle of addition of two vectors.
Answer:
If two vectors \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) acting at a point are represented by the two sides of a triangle taken in an order then the closing side of the triangle represented in opposite order with respect to the other vectors, gives their resultant vector.

Question 3.
State Aristotle’s fallacy.
Answer:
Aristotle assumed that force is required in order to set bodies in motion. However if a body is already in an uniform motion along a straight line, no external forces are required.

Question 4.
Name the type of energy stored in a stretched or compressed spring.
Answer:
Potential Energy.

Question 5.
Give an example for torque or moment of couple.
Answer:
When two equal and opposite forces are applied at the two ends of the lid of the bottle, the lid experience the torque or rotational effect.

Question 6.
Write the aim of Cavendish experiment in gravitation.
Answer:
Cavendish experiment determines the gravitational force of attraction between two ‘1 kg’ mass separated by ‘1 m’ apart.

Question 7.
How does strain depend on stress?
Answer:
Strain is directly proportional to stress.
Strain ∝ Stress.

Question 8.
Mention the value of steam point of water in Fahrenheit scale.
Answer:
Steam point = 100°C = 212 °F.

Question 9.
Which quantity is kept constant in adiabatic process?
Answer:
In an adiabatic process, entropy oft he system will remain constant.

Question 10.
The function y = log (ωt). The displacement y increases monotonically with time t, is it periodic function or non-periodic function.
Answer:
Non-periodic function.

Part – B

II. Answer any FIVE of the following questions: ( 5 × 2 = 10 )

Question 11.
Name any two fundamental forces in nature.
Answer:

1. Gravitational force
2. Electro – weak force
3. Strong nuclear force

Question 12.
Define accuracy in the measurement. How does accuracy depend on precision in the measurement.
Answer:
Accuracy refers to finding of the result very close to expected result whereas precision is limited to the error in the instrument.

Question 13.
Distinguish between speed and velocity.
Answer:
Average Speed:

• The ratio of total distance traveled to the total time gives the average speed.
• Average speed is a scalar physical quantity.
• Average speed of a particle is finite; cannot be zero and always positive.
• Average speed is greater than the magnitude of average velocity.

Average Velocity:

• The ratio of net displacement of the particle to the total time taken gives the average velocity.
• Average velocity is a vector physical quantity.
• Average velocity of a particle may be zero, negative and positive.
• Average velocity (magnitude) is less than the speed of the particle.

Question 14.
Answer:
Statement: Everybody continues to be in a state of rest or uniform motion along a straight line until an unbalanced force acts on it.
Explanation:

• Consider the mouth of a glass tumbler covered by a thin sheet of paper with a heavy coin on it. When the sheet of paper is pulled suddenly, the coin falls vertically down-wards into the glass tumbler due to inertia of position.
• Consider a book lying on a table. A force is required in order to cause any linear motion in it. In the absence of an external force, the book continues to occupy that position..

Question 15.
Mention the relation between linear momentum and angular momentum with usual meanings.
Answer:
\(\vec{L}=\vec{r} \times \vec{p}\) where \(\vec{p}\) = linear momentum, \(\vec{L}\) = angular momentum vector, \(\vec{r}\) = radius or distance vector.

Question 16.
Write any two practical applications of Pascal’s law.
Answer:
Hydraulic brakes, hydraulic press, hydraulic lifts, hydraulic jack, injection syringes.

Question 17.
Give any two assumptions of kinetic theory of gases.
Answer:

1. Collisions of molecules on the walls are perfectly elastic.
2. The size of the molecules are neglected when compared to the volume of the container.
3. The contribution to the net pressure due to inter-molecular collisions is neglected.
4. The root mean square value of speed is the average of velocities taken in all the three directions.

Question 18.
How does the period of oscillation of a pendulum depend on mass of the bob and length of the pendulum?
Answer:
‘T’ is independent of mass and directly proportional to the square root of the length of the pendulum.
\(\mathrm{T} \propto \sqrt{\mathrm{L}}\)

Part – C

III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions : ( 5 × 3 = 15 )

Question 19. Deduce the expression for horizontal range of a projectile. For what angle of pro jection does horizontal range become maximum?
Answer:
Expression for range of the projectile
We know that (v₀ cosθ) remains constant.
Instantaneous distance along the horizontal is given by x = (v₀ cosθ)t
for x = R (range of the projectile),
t = T= time of flight.

Hence R= \(\left(v_{0} \cos \theta\right)\left(\frac{2 v_{0} \sin \theta}{g}\right)\)
Note: R = \(=\frac{2}{\mathrm{g}} v_{0 \mathrm{x}} v_{0 \mathrm{y}}\)
i.e., R = \(\frac{v_{0}^{2} \sin 2 \theta}{g}\) where sin2θ = 2sinθ cosθ
Hence R ∝ v₀² for the given angle of projection.

Question 20.
Write any three laws of friction.
Answer:

1. Limiting friction depends on the nature of the surfaces in contact but not on the surface area as long as normal reaction remains the same.
2. Force of friction always acts tangential to the surface and opposite the direction of motion.
3. The limiting friction is directly proportional to the normal reaction between two surfaces in contact.
4. The kinetic friction becomes constant, once there is a relative motion between the two surfaces.
5. μ_s >μ_k > μ_r where μ_s, μ_k and μ_r are coefficient of friction due to static friction, kinetic friction and rolling friction respectively.

Question 21.
Deduce the work-energy theorem for a constant force.
Answer:
The difference of P.E. or K.E. required by a body at two different positions is equal to the amount of work done.

i.e., W = K_f – K_i.

Question 22.
Deduce the equations of motion of centre of mass.
Answer:

Question 23.
Name the three types of moduli of elasticity.
Answer:

1. Young’s Modulus
2. Bulk Modulus
3. Rigidity Modulus.

Question 24.
What is capillary rise? Write the expression for height of capillary rise in the capillary tube with usual meanings.
Answer:
The phenomenon of rise or fall of a liquid in a capillary tube is known as capillarity.

Question 25.
Obtain an expression for thermal stress.
Answer:
Y = \(\frac{\text { stress }}{\text { strain }}\) so that stress = (Y) (strain)
i.e. stress = Y ∝ ∆θ
where stress represents thermal stress, Y – Young’s Modulus of elasticity.

Question 26.
Show that specific heat capacity of a solid is equal to three times that of Gas constant (C = 3R).
Answer:
For solids U = 3RT.
At constant pressure, ∆Q = ∆U
∴C = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{Q}}{\Delta \mathrm{T}}\) = 3R .

Part – D

IV. Answer any TWO of the following questions : ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 27.
What is velocity – time graph. Deduce x = v₀t +\(\frac{1}{2}\)at² by using velocity-time graph.
Answer:
A graph of velocity of a particle plotted along the Y-axis and time along the X-axis is known as v-t graph and the curve is known as velocity time curve.
Let ‘v₀’ be the initial velocity of a particle. Let ‘a’ be the B uniform acceleration v – t graph gives a straight line with a constant slope, tanθ = m
i.e. a = \(\frac{v-v_{0}}{t}\)……..(1)

From the figure OABD is a trapezium.
Area of trapezium OABD = Area of rectangle OACD + Area of triangle ACB
The second term on the right indicates the additional distance covered by the particle due to acceleration.
i.e., area of trapezium = (OA)(OD) + 1/2 (AC)(BC) = v₀t + 1/2 t(v – v₀) by using (1)
Area of trapezium = v₀t + 1/2 at²
From the dimensional analysis. the right hand terms indicate the distance travelled. From the principle of homogeneity, the left hand side term should indicate the distance covered.
Hence area of the trapezium = x = v₀t + 1/2 at²
For a uniform motion, a = 0 and x = v₀t
For a particle starting from rest v₀ = 0, x = 1/2 at²
in a vector form, \(\vec{x}=\vec{v}_{0} t+\frac{1}{2} \overrightarrow{a t}^{2}\)

Question 28.
State and illustrate the law of conservation of linear momentum for any two colliding particles in a closed system.
Answer:
Statement: In an isolated system of collision of bodies, the total linear momentum before impact is equal to the total linear momentum after impact.

Let m₁ and m₂ be the masses of two bodies moving along \(\vec{v}_{1 i}\) and \(\vec{v}_{2 i}\). Let \(\vec{v}_{1 f}\) and be the \(\vec{v}_{2 f}\) be final velocities after the impact.
At the time of impact the force of action acts on the body B and the force of reaction acts on A.
Applying Newton’s III law of motion
\( |Force of action on \mathrm{B}|=-| Force of reaction on \mathrm{A} |\)

This shows that the total final linear momentum of the isolated system equals its total initial momentum.

Question 29.
State and explain parallel axes and perpendicular axes theorems of moment of inertia.
Answer:
Statement: The moment of inertia of a body about any axis is equal to the sum of the moment of inertia of the body about a parallel axis passing through the centre of mass and the product of mass of the body and square of the distance between the two parallel axes.
I = I₀ + Md².
Let ‘d’ be the distance between the two parallel axes. Let I be the moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass of a thin rod of length L.

We know that I₀ = \(\frac{\mathrm{ML}^{2}}{12}\) and d = \(\frac{\mathrm{L}}{2}\)
Hence moment of inertia at one end = \(\frac{M L^{2}}{12}+M\left(\frac{L}{2}\right)^{2}\)
I = \(\frac{M L^{2}}{4}\left[\frac{1}{3}+1\right]=\frac{M L^{2}}{3}\)

Statement : The moment of inertia about an axis perpendicular to two other axes acting in the same plane with their point of intersection being a point on it and the (third) axis passing through the common point, is equal to the sum of moments of inertia about the two axes.
e.g: I_z = I_x + I_y.
Let M be the mass of the disk of radius R.
M.I. about a point passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane containing X and Y is I = \(\frac{M R^{2}}{2}\)
Since X and Y are in the same plane, I_x = I_y

∴ I_z = I_x + I_y becomes I_z = 2I_x
hence I_x = \(\frac{I_{Z}}{2}=\frac{M R^{2}}{4}\)
i.e. moment of inertia of a circular disc about the diameter \(\frac{I_{Z}}{2}=\frac{M R^{2}}{4}\)

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions: ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 30.
State and explain the laws of thermal conductivity and hence mention the SI unit of coefficient of thermal conductivity.
Answer:
The quantity of heat conducted during the steady state is directly proportional to the,
(i) Area of cross-section of a conductor.
(ii) Temperature difference between the two points or ends (θ₁ – θ₂).
(iii) Time of passage of heat (t) and inversely proportional to the thickness or distance between the two ends of the conductor (d).
i.e., Q = \(\frac{\mathrm{KA}\left(\theta_{1}-\theta_{2}\right) \mathrm{t}}{\mathrm{d}}\)
where ’K’ is thermal conductivity of the material of the conductor.
The SI unit of thermal conductivity is Wm^-1 K^-1.

Question 31.
Deduce the expression for energy stored in a body executing simple harmonic motion.
Answer:
We know that total energy of a particle executing SHM,
TE = KE + PE
where K.E= \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²
K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mA² cos² (ωt + Φ)ω²
and P.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) ky²
i.e., P.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω². A²sin²(ωt + Φ)
Hence T.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω². A² (cos²(cost + Φ) + sin² (ωt + Φ))
or T.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω². A²
Representing mω² = k
we get TE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) kA²
K.E of the particle=\(\frac{1}{2}\) mω². A² – \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω². x²
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω²(A² -x² )
where x = A cos (ωt + Φ)
Also K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω²(A²)(1 – cos²(ωt + Φ))
i.e., K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω² A²sin²(ωt + Φ)
K(t) – K.E of a particle.

U(t) of a particle.
T.E = K(t) + U(t) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) kA²
where A – amplitude, k = mω², m – mass of the particle
ω = angular frequency = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\mathrm{T}}\)
T = Period of SHM
TE = KE + PE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω² A² cos² (ωt + Φ) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω² A²sin²(ωt + Φ) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω² A²

Question 32.
Discuss the mode of vibration of air columns in a closed pipe and hence define the fundamental frequency of vibration.
Answer:
Let ‘L’ be the length of the closed pipe. A pipe with one end closed is known as a closed pipe system. Le V be the velocity of sound in air. Length of half segment = \(\frac{\lambda_{0}}{4}\)
i.e., L = \(\frac{\lambda_{0}}{4}\) i.e., λ₀ = 4L.

The least mode of vibration is called fundamental mode i.e.,
fundamental frequency f₀ = \(\frac{\mathbf{v}}{\lambda}=\frac{\mathbf{v}}{4 L}\)
In the second mode of vibration.

i.e., f₂ = \(\frac{5 v}{4 L}\)
Hence f₀ : f₁ : f₂ :……..: f_n : : 1 : 3 : 5 :………: (2n – 1)

VI. Answer any THREE of the following questions: ( 3 × 5 = 15 )

Question 33.
A stone of mass 0.25 kg tied to the end of a string is whirled round in a circle of radius 1.5 m with a speed of 40 revolutions per minute in a horizontal plane. What is the tension in the spring?
Answer:
Given m = 0. 25 kg, R = 1.5 m, co = 40 rev. min^-1
i.e., ω = \(\frac{40 \times 2 \pi}{60}\) rad s^-1
ω = \(\frac{40 \times 2 \pi}{60}\)
ω = \(\frac{4 \times 3.14}{3}\) = 4.19 rad/s^-1
Linear speed = v = rw = 1.5 × 4.19 = 6.285 ms^-1

T = 6.584 N

Question 34.
A pump on the ground floor of a building can pump up water to fill a tank of volume 30 m3 in 15 minute. If the tank is 40 m above the ground and efficiency of the pump is 30%, how much of electrical power is consumed by the pump?
Answer:
Given V = 30 m³, t = 15 min = 15 × 60 = 900s
h = 40 m, η = 30% , density ρ = 10³ kg m^-3, g = 10 ms^-2
Potential Energy = mgh = Vρgh = 30 × 10³ × 10 × 40
i.e. Work done = 12 × 10⁶J.

True power required = \(\frac{100}{30}\) × 1.33 × 10⁴ = 4.433 × 10⁴ W

Question 35.
If two spheres of equal masses with their centres 0.2 m apart attract each other with a force of 1 × 10^-6 kg wt. What wrould be the value of their masses?
g = 9.8ms^-2 and G = 6.67 × 10^-11 Nm²kg^-2.
Answer:
Given r = 0.2 m,  F = 1 × 10^-6 kgwt =1 × 10^-6 × 9.8 = 9.8 × 10⁶ N
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 Nm² kg^-2, m₁ = m₂ = m

i.e., mass used is 0.511 × 10³ kg

Question 36.
The sink in Carnot’s heat engine is at 300K and the engine works at an efficiency 0.4. If the efficiency of the engine is to be increased to 0.5. Find by how many Kelvin the temperature of the source should be increased.
Answer:
Given η = 0.4,  n¹ = 0.5,  T = 300K

The source temperature should be increased by 300 K.

Question 37.
A train is moving at a speed of 72 kmph towards a station sounding a whistle, of frequency 640 Hz. What is the apparent frequency of the whistle as heard by a man standing on the platform when train approaches towards him.
Given : Speed of sound = 340 ms^-1.
Answer:
V_s = 72 kmph = 20 ms^-1  f = 640 Hz, V = 340 ms^-1
W.K.T. apparent frequency

∴f¹ = 680 Hz
Apparent frequency of sound as heard by the observer will be 680 Hz.

Students can Download 1st PUC Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South), Karnataka 1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South)

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 70

Instruction:

1. 1. The questions paper has five parts A, B, C, D and E. All parts are compulsory.
   2. Write balanced chemical equations and draw labeled diagram wherever allowed.
   3. Use log tables and simple calculations f necessary (use of scientific calculations is not allowed).

Part – A

I. Answer ALL of the following (each question carries one mark): ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
What is the SI unit of density?
Answer:
kgm^-3

Question 2.
Define critical temperature.
Answer:
Temperature above which a gas cannot be liquified by applying pressure.

Question 3.
Define pH of a solution.
Answer:
Negative logarithm to base ten of the hydrogen ion concentration is called pH.

Question 4.
State modern periodic law.
Answer:
Properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic number.

Question 5.
What is the oxidation number of Mn in KMnO₄.
Answer:
+ 7

Question 6.
Write the general-electronic configuration of alkali metals.
Answer:
nS¹

Question 7.
What is dry ice.
Answer:
Solid CO₂.

Question 8.
Write the composition of water gas.
Answer:
CO + H₂

Question 9.
Explain the homolytic fission.
Answer:
Symmetrical cleavage of covalent bond.

Question 10.
Name the catalyst used in Friedel-craft reaction.
Answer:
Anhydrous AlCl₃

Part – B 

II. Answer FIVE of the following questions carrying TWO marks: ( 5 × 2 = 10 )

Question 11.
Calculate the molarity of a solution containing 2.3 moles of solute dissolved in 4.6 litres.
Answer:

Question 12.
State Boyle’s law and give its mathematical form.
Answer:
At constant temperature, volume of a given fixed of a mass is inversely proportional to its pressure.
PV = constant

Question 13.
The dipole moment in BF3 is zero. Explain.
Answer:
In BF₃ there are 3 dipole. Its dipole moment is zero. This is possible only when the molecule is symmetric, BF₃ has trigonal planar shape.
The bond angle is 120°. The resultant m of any two dipoles is equal and opposite to the third dipole. So the net dipole moment is zero.

Question 14.
Give the important uses of plaster of Paris.
Answer:

1. In surgery for setting
2. In making blackboard chalks.

Question 15.
Write the resonance structure of carbonate ion (CO₃^-3).
Answer:

Question 16.
Explain Kolbe’s reaction of preparation of ethane.
Answer:
A concentrated sodium salt of a carboxylic acid is electrolysed. The alkane is formed at the anode as one of the products. This process is called Kolbe’s electrolysis.

Question 17.
Explain the nitration of benzene.
Answer:
Benzene on treating with nitrating mixture, nitrobenzene is formed.

Question 18.
Name the components of photochemical smog.
Answer:
Nitrogen oxides, ozone, organic derivatives.

Part – C

III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions carrying THREE marks: ( 5 × 3 = 15 )

Question 19.
Define ionisation enthalpy. How it varies along a period and down the group.
Answer:
The amount of energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron from an isolated gaseous atom. Ionization energy increases along the period and decreases down the group.

Question 20.
Explain sp³ hybridisation by taking methane as example.
Answer:
CH₄ – Methane Molecule. The Molecular formula of Methane is CH₄
Electronic configuration of C is ground state – 1s²2s²2p²
Electronic configuration of C in excited state – 1s² 2s¹ 2p³
Valance orbital representation –

The valence orbital contains unpaired electron. Elence sp³ hybridized carbon combine with 4 hydrogen atom forms methane molecule.

Question 21.
Write the electronic configuration of Hydrogen molecule. Calculate its bond order and mention its magnetic property.
Answer:
Electronic configuration – σ1S ²
Bond order = \(\frac{2-0}{2}\) = 1.
Diamagnetic property.

Question 22.
Write the three postulates of VSEPR Theory.
Answer:

1. Bonding : The bond formation takes place if there exists impaired electron in the valance shell.
2. Shape : The geometry or the shape of a molecule depends on the number of valence shell electrons surroundings the central atom.
3. Repulsion : Electron pair tend to repell one another because electron clouds have similar charge.
4. Stability : As a result of electron pair repulsion these electron pairs try to stay apart as possible in order to attain minimum energy and maximum stability.
5. Repulsive interaction : Lane pair with lane pair electrons are having maximum repulsive interaction, bond pair – bond pair electrons are having minimum repulsive interaction. When angle of repulsion decreases angle between the electron pair increases.
   (109°. 28′ less repulsion, 104° more repulsion).

Question 23.
Balance the following redox reaction by using oxidation number method.
MnO₂ + Br^–→ Mn⁺² + Br₂ + H₂O (acid medium)
Answer:

Question 24.
(a) Explain ionic hydrides with an example.
Answer:
These contain positive metal ions and negative hydride ions. These are also called saline hydrides. Ex: (Na⁺H^– ) sodium hydride, [Ca²⁺ (H^–)₂] calcium hydride.

(b) What is temporary hardness of water?
Answer:
Water containing bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium.

Question 25.
(a) Explain the diagonal relationship between Lithium and Magnesium.
Answer:
(a) Both Li and Mg are hard, (b) Li(OH) and Mg(OH)₂ are bases, (c) Both Li and Mg react with atmospheric nitrogen on heating gives their nitrides, (d) Both Li and Mg forms only monoxide but not peroxides and superoxides.

Question 26.
Explain the structure of diborane.
Answer:

1. The four terminal hydrogen atoms and two boron atoms lie in one plane.
2. Two bridging hydrogen atom lie above and below the plane.
3. Bonding between boron atom and terminal hydrogen atom is normal covalent bond whereas with bridging hydrogen atom it is 3 centred 2 electron bond.
4. Banana bond is formed with bridging H atoms.

Part – D

IV. Answer any FIVE of the following questions carrying FIVE marks: ( 5 × 5 = 25 )

Question 27.
(a) A compound contains 4.07% Hydrogen, 24.47% Carbon and 71.65% Chlorine.
Its molar mass is 98.96g. What are its empirical formula and molecular formula.
Answer:

Empirical Formula H₂C₁Cl

(b) Calculate the molecular mass of glucose.
Answer:
C₆H₁₂O₆ – 180 gmol^-1

Question 28.
(a) Give the postulates of Bohr’s theory of an atom.
Answer:
Bohr’s model of an atom, the postulates are:

1. Electrons revolve around the nucleus of an atom in a certain definite path called orbit or stationary state of shell.
2. The shells are having different energy levels denoted as K, L, M, N…
3. As long as the electron remains in an orbit, they neither absorb nor emit energy.
4. The electron can move only in that orbit in which angular momentum is quantized,
   i.e., the angular momentum of the electron is an integral multiple of \(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\)

(b) Write down the value of n, 1 and m for electron present in 2Pz orbital.
Answer:
n = 2, 1 = 1, m = -1,0,+l.

Question 29.
(a) Explain the significance of quantum numbers.
Answer:
(i) Principal Quantum number : Determines energy and size of the orbital.
(n)
(ii) Azimuthal Quantum number : Determines the shape of the orbitals (sub-shells).
(l)
(iii) Magnetic Quantum number : Determines the orientation of the orbitals.
(m)
(iv) Spin Quantum number : Determines the spin motion of the orbitals.
(s)

(b) State the Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity.
Answer:
Electron pairing does not take place until orbitals of same energy are singly occupied.

Question 30.
(a) Write any three postulates of kinetic theory of gases.
Answer:

1. Gases are made up of large number of the minute particles.
2. Pressure is exerted by a gas.
3. There is no loss of kinetic theory.
4. Molecules of gas attract on one another.
5. Kinetic energy of the molecule is directly proportional to absolute temperature.
6. Actual volume of the gaseous molecule is very small.
7. Gaseous molecules are always in motion.
8. There is more influence of gravity in the movement of gaseous molecule.

(b) Write Ideal gas equation and explain its terms.
Answer:
PV = nRT
P = Pressure, n = No. of moles, V = Volume,
R – Gas Constant, T = Temperature

Question 31.
(a) Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of Benzene. Given that the enthalpies of combustion of Carbon, Hydrogen and Benzene are -393.5 KJ mol^-1, -285.83 KJ mol^-1 and -3267 KJ mol^-1 respectively.
Answer:

(b) State second law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
“The net entropy of the universe is continuously increasing” (or) “total entropy of the system
and the surroundings increases in any spontaneous process i.e., ASsys(em + ASsurround; > 0 , for any sponteneous process.”

Question 32.
(a) What is an intensive property? Give an example.
Answer:
A property which is independent on the quantity of matter present in the system.
Example: Density’, Temperature.

(b) State Hess’s law of constant heat summation.
Answer:
Hess’s law : Whether a chemical reaction takes place in a single step or in several steps, the ‘ total change in enthalpy remains the same.
Consider the formation of CO₂ from C.

I Method (Single step): C(s) + O₂ (g) → CO₂(g); ∆H = -xkJ
Heat liberated = xkJ

II Method (Two step) : C(s) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O₂ (g) → CO(g);∆H = -x,kJ
CO(g) +\(\frac{1}{2}\) O₂(g) → CO₂(g) ; ∆H = -x₂kJ .
Total heat liberated = (x₁ + x₂ )kJ
According to Hess’s law, x = x₁ + x₂

(c) What is exothermic reaction?
Answer:
Reaction takes place with the liberation of heat.

Question 33.
(a) To prove that pH + pOH = 14 at 298K.
Answer:
The ionic product of water is given by [H^–] [OH^–] = K_w = 1.0 × 10^-14 at 298 K
Taking log on both sides, log₁₀[H⁺] + log₁₀[OH^–] = log₁₀ K_w = log₁₀ 1.0 × 10 ^-14
Multiplying by-ve sign, -log [H ⁺ ]-log₁₀[OH^– ] = log₁₀ K_w =-14.0000
wkt by definition, pH + pOH = pK_w =14.

(b) Calculate the pH of 0.01M H₂SO₄ by assuming complete ionisation.
Answer:
pH = -log [H⁺

pH = -log [2 × 10^-2 ]
[H⁺] = 0.02M
= 1.4990

(c) Define the Buffer action.
Answer:
It is the ability or capacity of a buffer solution to resist the pH by addition of acid or base.

Question 34.
(a) Explain the common ion effect with an example.
Answer:
Supperssion in the degree of dissociation of a weak electrolyte by the addition of a common ion is called common ion effect.

(b) Discuss amphoteric nature of water with an example.
Answer:
A substance or molecule which acts both as an acid as well as base

(c) Mention the conjugate base of SO₄^2-
Answer:
HSO₄^-1

Part – E

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions carrying FIVE marks: ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 35.
(a) With neat labelled diagram , describe the estimation of nitrogen by Dumas method
Answer:

Dumas method: The nitrogen containing organic compound, when heated with copper oxide in an atmosphere of carbon dioxide, yields free nitrogen in addition to carbon dioxide and water.
C_xH_yN_z + (2x + y/2) CuO → x CO₂ + y/2 H₂O + z/2 N₂ + (2x + y/2) Cu

Traces of nitrogen oxides formed, if any, are reduced to nitrogen by passing the gaseous mixture over a heated copper gauze. The mixture of gases so produced is collected over an aqueous solution of potassium hydroxide which absorbs carbon dioxide. Nitrogen is collected in the upper part of the graduated tube (Fig. 12.15).

Let the mass of organic compound = mg
Volume of nitrogen collected = V₁mL
Room temperature = T₁K
Volume of nitrogen at STP = \(\frac{\mathrm{p}_{1} \mathrm{V}_{1} \times 273}{760 \times \mathrm{T}_{1}}\) (Let it be V mL)

Where p₁ and V₁ are the pressure and volume of nitrogen, p₁ is different from the atmospheric pressure at which nitrogen gas is collected. The value of p₁ is obtained by the relation;
p₁ = Atmospheric pressure – Aqueous tension
22400 mL N₂ at STP weighs 28 g.
V mL N₂ at STP weighs = \(\frac{28 \times \mathrm{V}}{22400} \mathrm{g} \)
Percentage of nitrogen = \(\frac{28 \times V \times 100}{22400 \times m}\)

(b) Give any two differences between Inductive effect and Resonance effect.
Answer:
Two or more compounds having same molecular formula but differ in the carbon chain are called chain isomers. This phenomenon is called chain isomerism. Ex: C₄H₁₀

Question 36.
(a) What are free radical? How are they formed?
Answer:
A free radical can be defined as an atom or group of atoms having an odd or unpaired electron. Putting a dot (•) against the symbol of atom or group of atoms.

(b) Write the structure of 3-methyl-pentanal.
Answer:

(c) Give the example for +R effect.
Answer:
-NH₂, -OH,……..

Question 37.
(a) Explain free radical mechanism of chlorination of m
Answer:
In benzene, 6p electrons are present.
∴ n = 1 wkt Huckel’s rule is (4n + 2) p electrons.
∴ (4×1 + 2)π = 6π electrons.
Benzene is aromatic because it obeys Huckel rule and it is planar.

(b) Explain the mechanism of addition of HBr on propene.
Answer:
The mechanism of addition of hydrogen bromide to propene takes place in three steps:

Step 1: Hydrogen bromide dissociates into H⁺ and Br^–
H-Br → H⁺ + Br^–

Step 2: The electrophile H+ attacks propene to form carbocation.

of the two carbocations (I) and (II), carbocations (I) is more stable and is formed more readily.

Step 3: The nucleophile Br attacks the carbocation (I) to give 2 – bromopropane.

Students can Download 1st PUC Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South), Karnataka 1st PUC Physics Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South)

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. All parts are compulsory.
2. Draw relevant figure / diagram wherever necessary.
3. Numerical problems should be solved with relevant formulae.

Part – A

I. Answer ALL the following questions. ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
Write the dimensional formula for force.
Answer:
[Force] = [M¹ L¹ T^-2]

Question 2.
Write the SI unit of power.
Answer:
SI unit of power is ‘watt’.

Question 3.
What is projectile motion?
Answer:
A particle thrown into space at an angle and whose motion guided by the action of Earth’s gravity is called projectile motion.

Question 4.
Write relation between angular velocity and linear velocity.
Answer:
v = Rω; where, v = Linear velocity and ω = angular velocity.

Question 5.
Write expression for acceleration due to gravity at a height h from the surface of earth.
Answer:

where h – altitude, R – radius of the earth, g – acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth, g’ – acceleration due to gravity at an altitude.

Question 6.
Define stress.
Answer:
Stress is the restoring force developed per unit area in a body when a deforming force is applied to it
Stress = restoring force / area.

Question 7.
Define angle of contact.
Answer:
The angle between the normal reaction force and the contact force is known as the angle of contact.

where F_f – force of friction, F_a – applied force, W – weight of the body, R – normal reaction force, F_R – resultant of force between force of friction and the reaction force.

Question 8.
Write ideal gas equation for one mole of gas.
Answer:
PV = RT.

Question 9.
State zeroth law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
If two thermodynamic systems are in thermal equilibrium with third individually, then the systems are said to be in mutual thermal equilibrium with each other.
If T_A = T_C, T_B = T_C then T_A = T_B. where ‘T’ represents the temperatures and A, B, C represent the thermodynamic systems.

Question 10.
State law of equipartition of energy.
Answer:
For gases in thermal equilibrium, the energy supplied to the gas is equally distributed among the degrees of freedom and molecules, so that energy per molecule per degree of freedom is
\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\) k_BT where k_B is Boltzmann’s constant.

part – B

II. Answer any five of the following questions : ( 5 × 2 = 10 )

Question 11.
Name any two fundamental forces in nature.
Answer:

1. Gravitational force
2. Electro – weak force
3. Strong nuclear force

Question 12.
Write any two applications of dimensional analysis.
Answer:
Dimensional analysis is used

1. To check the correctness of an equation
2. To express the unit of physical quantity from one system of unit into another.
3. To derive an equation.

Question 13.
A body gets displacement of 5m in 2s, what is the average velocity?
Answer:
Average velocity = \(\frac{\text { displacement }}{\text { time taken }}\)
i.e., v = \(\frac{5}{2}\) = 2.5 ms^-1

Question 14.
Define scalar product of two vectors.
Answer:
Scalar product \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) = AB cosθ
where A = \(|\vec{A}|\) and B = \(|\vec{B}|\).

Question 15.
What is kinetic friction? Write the expression.
Answer:
The ratio of kinetic friction to the normal reaction due to interacting surfaces is called coefficient of kinetic friction.
μ_k = \(\frac{F_{k}}{R}\)
Note: μ_k < μ_s

Question 16.
Define specific heat capacity of a substance.
Answer:
The amount of heat required to raise the given mass of the substance through one kelvin of temperature is known as its thermal capacity.
i.e, thermal capacity of a substance = ms = \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{Q}}{\Delta \mathrm{T}}\right)\)
where ∆T = 1K.

Question 17.
Write any two differences between isothermal process and adiabatic process.
Answer:
Isothermal process:

• In this process changes in pressure and volume of gas take place at a constant temperature.
• Boyle’s law holds good.
• PV = constant
• Generally this process is slow
• Change in the internal energy dU = 0
• Specific heat of gas in this process is infinity.
• Work done in this process is expressed in terms of changes in volume and constant temperature.
  W = 2.303 μRT log \(\left(\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}\right)\)

Adiabatic process:

• In this process, changes in pressure and volume take place under a thermal isolation.
• Boyle’s law does not hold good.
• PV^γ = constant & γ = \(\frac{C_{p}}{C_{V}}\)
• Generally this process is fast.
• Change in entropy dS = 0 Internal energy of gas decreases on expansion and increases on compression.
• Specific heat of gas in this process remains zero.
• Work done in this process is expressed in terms of changes in temperature.
  W = \(\frac{\mu R}{(\gamma-1)}\) (T₁ = T₂)
  i.e., Work done is measured in terms of fall in temperature or rise in temperature.

Question 18.
Define frequency and period of oscillation.
Answer:
The smallest interval of time after which the motion of the particle is repeated is called the period of oscillation. The time taken for one complete to and fro motion of a particle is known as the period of oscillation.
The number of times a particle executes a complete to and fro motion in one second is known as its frequency.

Part – C

III. Answer any Five of the following questions. ( 5 × 3 = 15 )

Question 19.
A body is moving in uniform circular motion. Derive an expression for centripetal acceleration.
Answer:
Let \(\vec{r}\) and \(\vec{r}^{\prime}\) be the position vectors and \(\vec{v}\) and \(\vec{v}^{\prime}\) veIocities of the object when it is at point P and P’. By definition, velocity at a point is along the tangent at that point in the direction of the motion. Since the path is circular \(\vec{v}\) is perpendicular to \(\vec{r}\) and \(\vec{v}^{\prime}\) is perpendicular to \(\vec{r}^{\prime}\).
Therefore, ∆\(\vec{v}\)is perpendicular to ∆\(\vec{r}\) Average acceleration \(\frac{\Delta \vec{v}}{\Delta t}\) is perpendicular to ∆\(\vec{r}\).
The magnitude of \(\vec{a}\) is, by definition, given by \(|\vec{a}|=\lim _{\Delta t \rightarrow 0} \frac{|\Delta \vec{v}|}{\Delta t}\)
The triangle formed by the position vectors is similary to the triangle formed by the velocity vectors.

lf ∆t is very small. ∆ will also small. The arc PP is approximately equal to \(|\Delta \vec{r}|\)
i.e., \(\lim _{\Delta t \rightarrow 0} \frac{|\Delta \vec{r}|}{\Delta t}\) = v. Thus, centripetal acceleration \(|\vec{a}|=\frac{v}{r} v=\frac{v^{2}}{r}\) and \(\vec{a}=\frac{v}{r} \frac{d \vec{r}}{d t}\).
The centripetal acceleration is always directed towards the centre. The centripetal force = ma.

Question 20.
State Newton’s second law of motion. Hence derive F= ma.
Answer:
Newton’s II law of motion:
Statement: “The rate of change in the linear momentum of a body is directly proportional to the impressed force and takes place in the direction of force applied.
To show that \(\vec{F}=m \vec{a}\).
Let m be the mass of the body. Let be the initial linear momentum. Let be the final linear momentum as a result of the impressed force.
By definition \(\lim _{\Delta t \rightarrow 0} \frac{\Delta \vec{p}}{\Delta t}=\frac{d \vec{p}}{d t}\) where \(\Delta \vec{p}=\vec{p}_{f}-\vec{p}_{i}\), and \(\frac{d \vec{p}}{d t}\) is instantaneous acceleration.
From Newton’s II law of motion,

But the magnitude of force \(|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}|\) is so defined that k = 1 : We denote \(|\vec{F}|=m|\vec{a}|\)
Thus F=ma and \(\vec{F}=m \vec{a}\).

Question 21.
State work energy theorem with proof.
Answer:
Let ‘K’ represent kinetic energy, we know that K = 1/2 mv². the time rate of change of kinetic energy is given by =

i.e., \(\frac{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{K}}{\mathrm{dt}}=\mathrm{F} \frac{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{x}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) where v = \(\frac{d x}{d t}\) = time rate of displacement of particle.
or dK = Fdx
Integrating from the initial to final position,
we write \(\int_{k_{i}}^{k_{f}} \mathrm{d} \mathrm{K}=\int_{x_{i}}^{x_{f}} \mathrm{Fdx}\)
i.e., ( K_f – K_i ) = \(\int_{x_{i}}^{x_{f}} F(x) d x\)
since ‘∆K’ is a scalar quantity, the direction contained in Newton’s II law is absent.

Question 22.
Show that kinetic energy of rotating body is \(\frac{1}{2} \mathbf{I} \omega^{2}\).
Answer:
Moment of inertia may be defined as the product of mass of the whole body and the square of the radius of gyration.
(i) the moment of inertia is the algebraic sum of products of the mass of particles and square of their perpendicular distances from the axis of rotation.
\(\mathrm{I}=\sum_{\mathrm{i}=1}^{\mathrm{n}} \mathrm{m}_{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{r}_{1}^{2}=\mathrm{MK}^{2}\)

Where , m₁, m₂, m₃. … m_n are mass of particles at perpendicular distances r₁, r₂, r₃,……….r_n respectively, from the axis of rotation.
∴Rotational K.E. of the body = Sum of linear K.E of all the particles of the rotating system.

Question 23.
State Kepler’s laws of planetary motion.
Answer:
Kepler’s I law (Law of orbit): All planets revolve in elliptical orbits with Sun as one of its foci.

2a – Major axis length
2b – Minor axis length
S-Sun at one focus P
S¹ – The other focus of the ellipse
P – Perihelion position of the planet.
A – Apehelion position of the planet.

Kepler’s II law (Law of areas) : The line joining the planet and the Sun sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time.
\(\frac{\Delta \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}}{\Delta \mathrm{t}}=\frac{1}{2 \mathrm{m}} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{L}}\)

Kepler’s III law (Law of periods) : The square of the period of revolution of a planet around the sun is directly proportional to the cube of the semi major axis of the ellipse.
i.e., T² ∝ a³ so that for two planets
\(\left(\frac{T_{1}}{T_{2}}\right)^{2}=\left(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\right)^{3}\)

Question 24.
Calculate \(\frac{C_{p}}{C_{v}}\) for monatomic gas.
Answer:
\(\frac{C_{p}}{C_{v}}\) = γ = 1 + \(\frac{2}{f}\)
where f= 3 for monatomic gas
Hence γ = 1+ \(\frac{2}{f}\) = 1 + 0.667
i.e. γ = 1.667.
Hence \(\frac{C_{p}}{C_{v}}\) for monatomic gas = 1.667

Question 25.
Write stress-strain curve for a metal. What is proportional limit and yield point?
Answer:
Statement: The ratio of stress to strain is a constant for a material within the elastic limit.Modulus of elasticity = \(\frac{\text { Stress }}{\text { Strain }}\)

Within the elastic limit, stress v/s strain is a straight line ‘A’ is the elastic limit upto which Hooke’s law is applicable. Beyond ‘B’ the yielding point, the wire extends but does not return to the initial state when the deforming force is removed. ‘F’ is the breaking point. ‘EF’ allows the material to be malleable and ‘DE’, ductile.

Question 26.
State Bernoulli’s and write the equation principle.
Answer:
Along a steamline, in a steady flow of non viscous fluid, potential energy, kinetic energy and pressure energy remain constant.
i.e., mgh + 1/2 mv² + PV = K
i.e., mgh + 1/2 mv² + Pm/ρ = K ÷ m
we get, gh + \(\frac{v^{2}}{2}+\frac{P}{\rho}\) =K ÷ g
i.e., h + \(\frac{v^{2}}{2 g}+\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\rho g}\) = K
where ‘h’ is called gravitational head, \(\frac{v^{2}}{2 g}\) is velocity head and \(\frac{P}{\rho g}\) is pressure head.
For horizontal Flow, \(\frac{\rho v^{2}}{2}\) + P = K.
As the velocity of the fluid increases, pressure of the fluid decreases.

Part – D

IV. Answer any Two of the following questions: ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 27.
Derive the equation x = v₀t +\(\frac{1}{2}\)at² using V-T graph.
Answer:
A graph of velocity of a particle plotted along the Y-axis and time along the X-axis is known as v-t graph and the curve is known as velocity time curve.
Let ‘v₀’ be the initial velocity of a particle. Let ‘a’ be the B uniform acceleration v – t graph gives a straight line with a constant slope, tanθ = m
i.e. a = \(\frac{v-v_{0}}{t}\)……..(1)

From the figure OABD is a trapezium.
Area of trapezium OABD = Area of rectangle OACD + Area of triangle ACB
The second term on the right indicates the additional distance covered by the particle due to acceleration.
i.e., area of trapezium = (OA)(OD) + 1/2 (AC)(BC) = v₀t + 1/2 t(v – v₀) by using (1)
Area of trapezium = v₀t + 1/2 at²
From the dimensional analysis. the right hand terms indicate the distance travelled. From the principle of homogeneity, the left hand side term should indicate the distance covered.
Hence area of the trapezium = x = v₀t + 1/2 at²
For a uniform motion, a = 0 and x = v₀t
For a particle starting from rest v₀ = 0, x = 1/2 at²
in a vector form, \(\vec{x}=\vec{v}_{0} t+\frac{1}{2} \overrightarrow{a t}^{2}\)

Question 28.
State and explain law of conservation of momentum with proof.
Answer:
Statement: In an isolated system of collision of bodies, the total linear momentum before impact is equal to the total linear momentum after impact.

Let m₁ and m₂ be the masses of two bodies moving along \(\vec{v}_{1 i}\) and \(\vec{v}_{2 i}\). Let \(\vec{v}_{1 f}\) and be the \(\vec{v}_{2 f}\) be final velocities after the impact.
At the time of impact the force of action acts on the body B and the force of reaction acts on A.
Applying Newton’s III law of motion
\( |Force of action on \mathrm{B}|=-| Force of reaction on \mathrm{A} |\)

This shows that the total final linear momentum of the isolated system equals its total initial momentum.

Question 29.
State and explain parallel axes theorem and perpendicular axes theorem.
Answer:
Statement: The moment of inertia of a body about any axis is equal to the sum of the moment of inertia of the body about a parallel axis passing through the centre of mass and the product of mass of the body and square of the distance between the two parallel axes.
I = I₀ + Md².
Let ‘d’ be the distance between the two parallel axes. Let I be the moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass of a thin rod of length L.

We know that I₀ = \(\frac{\mathrm{ML}^{2}}{12}\) and d = \(\frac{\mathrm{L}}{2}\)
Hence moment of inertia at one end = \(\frac{M L^{2}}{12}+M\left(\frac{L}{2}\right)^{2}\)
I = \(\frac{M L^{2}}{4}\left[\frac{1}{3}+1\right]=\frac{M L^{2}}{3}\)

Statement : The moment of inertia about an axis perpendicular to two other axes acting in the same plane with their point of intersection being a point on it and the (third) axis passing through the common point, is equal to the sum of moments of inertia about the two axes.
e.g: I_z = I_x + I_y.
Let M be the mass of the disk of radius R.
M.I. about a point passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane containing X and Y is I = \(\frac{M R^{2}}{2}\)
Since X and Y are in the same plane, I_x = I_y

∴ I_z = I_x + I_y becomes I_z = 2I_x
hence I_x = \(\frac{I_{Z}}{2}=\frac{M R^{2}}{4}\)
i.e. moment of inertia of a circular disc about the diameter \(\frac{I_{Z}}{2}=\frac{M R^{2}}{4}\)

V. Answer any Two of the following questions : ( 2 × 5 =10 )

Question 30.
Explain working of Carnot’s heat engine.
Answer:
Working of Carnot’s engine:
Step 1 : The working substance (ideal gas) is enclosed ¡n a non-conducting wall and conducting bottom of a cylinder fitted with air tight non conducting piston. This is placed on the source having an infinite thermal capacity at a steady temperature.
The top surface is conducting and the rest non conducting. As a result, the gas expands isothermally. The work done
by the system.
Q = W₁ = μRT₁ log\(\frac{V_{2}}{V_{1}}\)(curve A B)

Step 2 : The working substance is now placed on a non L conducting platform. as a result ofwhich no heat exchange takes place between the system and the surroundings. [he system expands adiabatically at the expense of its internal energy. The gas cools. The work done by the system.
\(\mathrm{W}_{2}=\frac{\mu \mathrm{R}}{\gamma-1}\left(\mathrm{T}_{1}-\mathrm{T}_{2}\right)\)(curve B C)

Step 3 : The working substance is now placed on the sink maintained at a steady low temperature T,K. The system undergoes isothermal compression at this temperature. The pressure of gas increases and volume decreases without any change in the internal energy and specific heat of gas remains at infinity.
\(\mathrm{W}_{3}=\mu \mathrm{RT}_{2} \log \left(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{4}}{\mathrm{V}_{3}}\right)\) (curve C D)

Step 4: The working substance is placed on a non-conducting platform, Under thermal isolation. the system undergoes change in its internal energy and its specific heat remains at zero. Adiabatic compression results in increase in the pressure and temperature at the expense of work being done on the system. The system is allowed to reach its initial slate. This completes one cycle of operation. The area hounded by the curves gives the amount of heat converted into work.
\(\mathrm{W}_{4}=\frac{-\mu \mathrm{R}}{\gamma-1}\left(\mathrm{T}_{1}-\mathrm{T}_{2}\right)\) (curve D A)
i.e., Net work done = W =W₁ + W₂ +W₃ + W₄
Work done = μR(T – T₂) \(\log _{e}\left(\frac{V_{2}}{V_{1}}\right)\)
∴Efficiency η = \(\frac{\mathrm{w}}{\mathrm{Q}}=1-\frac{\mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{1}}\)

Question 31.
Derive an expression for energy of a body which is in S.H.M.
Answer:
We know that total energy of a particle executing SHM,
TE = KE + PE
where K.E= \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²
K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mA² cos² (ωt + Φ)ω²
and P.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) ky²
i.e., P.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω². A²sin²(ωt + Φ)
Hence T.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω². A² (cos²(cost + Φ) + sin² (ωt + Φ))
or T.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω². A²
Representing mω² = k
we get TE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) kA²
K.E of the particle=\(\frac{1}{2}\) mω². A² – \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω². x²
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω²(A² -x² )
where x = A cos (ωt + Φ)
Also K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω²(A²)(1 – cos²(ωt + Φ))
i.e., K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω² A²sin²(ωt + Φ)
K(t) – K.E of a particle.

U(t) of a particle.
T.E = K(t) + U(t) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) kA²
where A – amplitude, k = mω², m – mass of the particle
ω = angular frequency = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\mathrm{T}}\)
T = Period of SHM
TE = KE + PE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mω² A² cos² (ωt + Φ) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω² A²sin²(ωt + Φ) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mω² A²

Question 32.
What is Doppler effect of sound? Derive expression for apparent frequency of sound when source is moving away from stationary listener.
Answer:
The phenomenon of apparent change in frequency due to relative motion between the source of sound and the listener (observer) is known as Doppler effect.
Let S₁ be the position of the source at t = 0. Let L be the distance b/w the observed and the source at S,
Let v be the velocity of sound in air.
Time taken for sound (say crest) to reach the observer
t₁ = \(\frac{L}{v}\) ……..(1)
Let the source travel further from S₁, and occupy the position S, away from a stationary observer.
distance S₁S₂ = v_sT₀
For a crest at S₁ to reach the observer, it takes the time t₂ = T₀ + \(\frac{\mathrm{L}+\mathrm{v}_{\mathrm{s}} \mathrm{T}_{0}}{\mathrm{v}}\) ………(2)
At time nT, the source emits its (n +1)th crest and this reaches the observer at time.

Apparent frequency of sound heard by a stationary observer for a source of sound moving away from him
f = f₀ (\(\frac{\mathbf{v}}{\mathbf{v}+\mathbf{v}_{\mathbf{s}}}\))
and apparent wavelength X = \(\frac{v+v_{s}}{f_{0}}\), change (increase) in wavelength.

For a source moving towards the observer,change v_s to – v_s
Then f = f₀ (\(\frac{\mathbf{v}}{\mathbf{v}-\mathbf{v}_{\mathrm{s}}}\))
Apparent wave length = \(\frac{v-v_{S}}{f_{0}}\), here λ<λ₀

VI. Answer any Three of the following questions : ( 3 × 5 = 15 )

Question 33.
A body is projected at an angle of 30° with the horizontal and with a velocity of 39.2 ms^-1. Find,
(a) Time of flight (T)
(b) Range (R)
(c) Maximum height (H)
Answer:
Given θ = 30°, u = 39.2 ms^-1.

Question 34.
A body of mass 5 kg moving with a velocity of 6 ms^-1 collide with another body of mass 2 kg which is at rest. Afterwards they move in the same direction as before. If the velocity of the body of mass 2 kg is 10 ms^-1, find the velocity and kinetic energy of the body of mass 5 kg.
Answer:
Given m₁ = 5 kg, u, = 6 ms^-1.
m₂ = 2 kg, u₂ = 0
v₂ = 10 ms-1, v₁ = ?, KE₁ =?.
Applying m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = m₁v₁ + m₂v₂ we get
5 × 6 + 2 × 0 = 5v₁ + 2 × 10
i.e., 5v₁ = 30 – 20 = 10
or v₁ = \(\frac{10}{5}\) = 2ms^-1 in the direction of \(\vec{v}_{2}\)
Kinetic energy of m₁ = \(\frac{1}{2} m_{1} v_{1}^{2}=\frac{1}{2} \times 5 \times 2 \times 2\)
K.E = 10J

Question 35.
Find the potential energy of a system of four particles each of mass 5 kg placed at the vertices of a square of side 2m.
Answer:
PE of the system = \(\frac{-4 G m^{2}}{a}-\frac{2 G m^{2}}{\sqrt{2} a}\)
where \(\sqrt{2} a\) =diagonal of the square.

= -451.39 × 10¹¹J
PE = -4.514 × 10^-9J

Question 36.
Two identical bars each of length l = 0.1 m and area A = 0.02 m², one is iron of thermal conductivity K₁ = 79 Wm^-1 K^-1 and another of brass of thermal conductivity K₂ = 10 Wm^-1 K^-1 are soldered end to end. Free end of iron bar is at 373K and of brass bar is at 273K. Find the temperature of the junction.
Answer:
Given A₁ = A₂ = A, l₁ = l₂ = l; K= 79 Wm^-1 K^-1.
K = 109 Wm^-1K^-1, θ₁ = 373 K,  θ₂ = 273K , θ = ?
Since θ₁ = θ₂
\(\frac{K_{1} A\left(\theta_{1}-\theta_{2}\right) t}{l_{1}}=\frac{K_{2} A\left(\theta-\theta_{2}\right) t}{l_{2}}\)
∴K₁ (θ₁ – θ) = K₂ (θ – θ₂)
→ 79(373 – θ)= 109(θ – 273)
→ 29467 – 79θ = -109θ – 29757
i.e., 188θ = 59224 →
θ = \(\frac{59224}{188}\) = 315.02
∴temperature of the junction is 315.02 K.

Question 37.
A wave travelling in a string is described, by an equation y(x, t) = 0.005 sin(80πt – 3πx) all are in SI unit. Find (a) amplitude (A) (b) Wave length (A) (c) Period (T).
Answer:
Given y(x, t) = 0.005 sin (80πt – 3πx); A =,?, λ = ?, T = ?, f = ?
comparing the given equation y (x, t) A sin (ωt – kx) with the equation
(i)A 0.005m or A = 5 x 10^-3m.
(ii) k = 3 rad m^-1.
i.e., k = 3 x 3.142 = 12.726 rad m^-1
but k = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\lambda}\)
3 = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\lambda}\)
or λ = (\(\frac{2}{3}\)) = 0.667 m
(iii) ω = 80π
i.e., 2πf = 80π
∴ f = 40 Hz
(iv) T= \(\frac{1}{f}\)
∴T= \(\frac{1}{40}\) =0.025 s
or T=25 × 10^-3s
or T = 25 ms

Students can Download 1st PUC Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (North), Karnataka 1st PUC Chemistry Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (North)

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 70

Instruction:

1. 1. The questions paper has five parts A, B, C, D and E. All parts are compulsory.
   2. Write balanced chemical equations and draw labeled diagram wherever allowed.
   3. Use log tables and simple calculations f necessary (use of scientific calculations is not allowed).

Part – A

I. Answer ALL of the following (each question carries one mark): ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
What is the S.I. unit of Electric Current?
Answer:
ampere (or) A.

Question 2.
State Dalton’s law of Partial Pressure.
Answer:
“The total pressure exerted by a mixture of non-reacting gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of all the component gases at constant temperature.”

Question 3.
Write the conjugate base for HCO₃^–.
Answer:
CO₃^-2.

Question 4.
Write the valence shell electronic configuration of P-block elements.
Answer:
nS².p^1-6.

Question 5.
Assign the oxidation number of ‘Mn’ in MnO^–₄.
Answer:
+7.

Question 6.
Name the alkali metal which has high hydration enthalpy.
Answer:
Lithium.

Question 7.
Give the chemical formula of Borax.
Answer:
Na₂B₄O₇ 10H₂O.

Question 8.
What are silicones?
Answer:
Polymeric organo-silicon compounds containing Si-O-Si bonds are called silicones.

Question 9.
Write IUPAC name of

Answer:
4 methyl-butan-2-ol.

Question 10.
Name the organic product obtained when Benzene is treated with excess of chlorine in presence of anhydrous Aluminium chloride.
Answer:
Chlorobenzene.

Part – B

II. Answer any FIVE of the following questions carrying TWO marks: ( 5 × 2 = 10 )

Question 11.
A solution is prepared by adding 2g of a substance A to 18 g of water. Calculate the mass percent of the solute.
Answer:

Question 12.
Derive the relation between Density and Molar mass of a gaseous substance from ideal gas equation.
Answer:
W.K.T PV =- nRT

Where ρ = density, P = Pressure of a gas, M = Molar Mass of gas,
R = gas constant, T = Kelvin Temperature.

Question 13.
Write the resonance structures of ozone.
Answer:

Question 14.
What happens when
(i) Quicklime is heated with silica.
(ii) Sodium burns vigorously in oxygen.
Answer:
(i) Calcium silicate is formed. CaO + SiO₂ → CaSiO₃
(ii) Sodium bums vigorously in oxygen.

Question 15.
Diamond is covalent, yet it has high melting point. Why?
Answer:
Due to strong covalent bonds holding all the carbon atoms in diamond together.

Question 16.
How do you prepare Benzene from Ethyne.
Answer:
When ethyne is passed through a red hot copper tube, it polymerises to form benzene.

Question 17.
Explain the Friedel crafts alkylation of Benzene with the equation.
Answer:
When Benzene is treated with an alkylhaiide in presence of anhydrous Aluminium Chloride, alkylation takes place to give alkyl benzene.

Question 18.
What are particulate pollutants? Give an example.
Answer:
Particulate pollutants are solid particles in the air. Example: dust, fumes, mist, smoke.

Part – C

III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions carrying THREE marks: ( 5 × 3 = 15 )

Question 19.
(a) Define Electro negativity. How does it vary along a group?
Answer:
The ability of an atom to attract the shared electron pair (of a covalent bond) in a molecule towards itself is called electro negativity. In a period from left to right the electro negativity increases. Down a group electronegativity value decreases.

(b) Which of the following will have most negative electron gain enthalpy?
P, S, Cl, F
Answer:
F.

Question 20.
Explain SP-hybridisation in BeCl₂ molecule.
Answer:

One 2S and one 2P orbital of Beryllium undergoes SP hybridisation giving rise to two SP hybrid orbitals of same energy. Which has a linear structure. Two SP hybrid orbitals of Beryllium overlaps with 2P orbital of Chlorine to form two Be-Cl covalent bonds with a bond angle of 180°.

Question 21.
(a) Write any two differences between sigma-bond and Pi-bond.
(b) Name the type of Hydrogen bonding in ortho-nitrophenol.
Answer:
(a)
σ bond :

1. Overlapping is along the axis
2. Overlapping is maximum
3. Due to maximum overlap the bond is strong
4. s-orbital can participate

π bond :

1. Overlapping is on side wise
2. Overlapping is minimum
3. Due to minimum overlap, the band is weak
4. s-orbital cannot participate

(b) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding.

Question 22.
Write the Electronic configuration of Oxygen molecule. Predict its magnetic property and calculate its Bond order.
Answer:
Atomic number of oxygen is 8: 1s² 2s², 2P⁴

(a) Bond order = \(\frac{8-4}{2}\) = 2
(b) Electronic configuration of oxygen molecule is
KKσ2s² σ*2s² σ2p_z² π2p_x¹ π2p²_y π*2p¹_x π*2p¹_y
(c) Magnetic property: Paramagnetic.

Question 23.
Balance the Redox-reaction by using Oxidation number method in acidic medium

Answer:
Cr₂O^2-₇ + SO₃^2- → Cr³⁺+ SO₄^-2 (Acidic medium)
Step 1.

Multiply reduction equation by 1 unit and oxidation equation by 3 units
Cr₂O^2-₇ → 2Cr³⁺
3SO₃^2- → 3SO₄^-2
Adding both equations Cr₂O^2-₇ + 3SO₃^2- → 2Cr³⁺ + 3SO₄^2-
since there are 4 oxygen atom more on LHS, 4H₂O is added on RHS. The equation is balanced WRT H⁺ ion.
Cr₂O^2-₇ + 3SO₃^2- + 8H⁺ → 2Cr³⁺ + 3SO₄^2- + 4H₂O

Question 24.
(a) How temporary Hardness of water is removed by Boiling?
Answer:
Hard water can be softened by the following methods depending upon the nature of hardness. Temporary hardness: (i) By boiling: It can be removed by merely boiling the water. Boiling decomposes the bicarbonates to give carbon dioxide and insoluble carbonates, which can be removed by filtration.

(b) What is the composition of water gas?
Answer:
CO + H₂

Question 25.
(a) Complete the following reactions.

Answer:

(b) Lithium shows diagonal relationship with Magnesium. Give reason.
Answer:
Small size and high charge density.

Question 26.
(a) Write the chemical formula of Inorganic benzene.
Answer:
B₃N₃H₆.

(b) Write the dimeric structure of Aluminium chloride.
Answer:

(c) Define catenation.
Answer:
Carbon atoms have a remarkable property of joining with one another in a large number to form a long chain and rings. This property is known as catenation or self linkage.

Part – D

IV. Answer any FIVE of the following questions carrying FIVE marks: ( 5 × 5 = 25 )

Question 27.
(a) Calculate the amount of carbon dioxide produced by the combustion of 24g of methane.
Answer:

(b) Define Mole. What is the value of Avagadro’s Number.
Answer:
Mass of a substance which contains avogadro number of particles.
Avogadro number = 6.023 x 10²³

(c) Express the number 232.508 in scientific notation.
Answer:
232.51.

Question 28.
(a) What are the observations made in Rutherford a-particle experiment.
Answer:
The observations of p ray scattering experiments:

1. About 99% of α particles are simply passed through the gold leaf as if they did not come across any obstruction in their path.
2. A small number of them got deflected by small angles.
3. About 1 out of 20,000 α particles got deflected by more than 90°. A few of them even retracted their path.

(b) Give any two postulates of Bohr’s theory of Atomic model.
Answer:
Bohr’s model of an atom, the postulates are:

1. Electrons revolve around the nucleus of an atom in a certain definite path called orbit or stationary state of shell.
2. The shells are having different energy levels denoted as K, L, M, N…
3. As long as the electron remains in an orbit, they neither absorb nor emit energy.
4. The electron can move only in that orbit in which angular momentum is quantized,
   i.e., the angular momentum of the electron is an integral multiple of \(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\)

Question 29.
(a) Name any three quantum numbers and write their significance.
Answer:
(i) Principal Quantum number : Determines energy and size of the orbital.
(n)
(ii) Azimuthal Quantum number : Determines the shape of the orbitals (sub-shells).
(l)
(iii) Magnetic Quantum number : Determines the orientation of the orbitals.
(m)
(iv) Spin Quantum number : Determines the spin motion of the orbitals.
(s)

(b) State heisenberg’s uncertainty principle. Write its mathematical equation.
Answer:
It is impossible to determine both the momentum (particle nature) and position (wave nature) of a moving sub atomic particle simultaneously with absolute accuracy.
Mathematically ∆x × ∆p = h / 4π where Ax = uncertainty in position:
∆p = uncertainty in momentum; h = Plank’s constant = 6.626 × 10^-34 Js.

Question 30.
(a) Write any three postulates of Kinetic theory of gases.
Answer:

1. Gases are made up of large number of the minute particles.
2. Pressure is exerted by a gas.
3. There is no loss of kinetic theory.
4. Molecules of gas attract on one another.

(b) Define critical temperature. Write the value of critical temperature for CO₂.
Answer:
The maximum temperature at which a gas can be converted into liquid by applying pressure.
Critical temperature of C₂→ 30.98°C.

Question 31.
(a) Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of Methane. Given that the standard enthalpy of combustion of Methane, Carbon and Hydrogen are -890.3 kJ,
Answer:
C(S) + 2H₂(g) → CH₄(g) ∆H ….(1)
C(S) + O₂ (g) → CO₂(g) ∆H = -393.5kJ ….. (2)
H₂(g) + 1/2 O₂ (g) → H₂O() ∆H = -285.8kJ …… (3)
CH₄(g) + 2O₂ (g) → CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(I) ∆H = -890.3kJ ….. (4)
Eqn. (2) × , Eqn. (3) × 2, reverse Eqn. (4), add
H₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2H₂O(l) ∆H = -571.6kJ
CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(l) → CH₄(g) + 20,(g) ∆H = +890.3kJ
C(S) + 2H₂(g) → CH₄(g) ∆H = -74.8kJ

(b) What is the change in the value of entropy when ice melts to give water.
Answer:
+ve (or) positive.

Question 32.
(a) State Hess’s law of constant heat summation. Illustrate with examples.
Answer:
Hess’s law : Whether a chemical reaction takes place in a single step or in several steps, the ‘ total change in enthalpy remains the same.
Consider the formation of CO₂ from C.

I Method (Single step): C(s) + O₂ (g) → CO₂(g); ∆H = -xkJ
Heat liberated = xkJ

II Method (Two step) : C(s) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O₂ (g) → CO(g);∆H = -x,kJ
CO(g) +\(\frac{1}{2}\) O₂(g) → CO₂(g) ; ∆H = -x₂kJ .
Total heat liberated = (x₁ + x₂ )kJ
According to Hess’s law, x = x₁ + x₂

(b) Mention any two thermodynamic criteria for spontaneous process.
Ansewr:
Change in Enthalpy should be positive and Change in Entropy should be positive.

Question 33.
(a) Define Equilibrium constant. Derive an expression for the equilibrium constant K_c for the reaction.
Answre:
Equilibrium constant (K_c) is defined as the ratio of product of equilibrium concentrations of products to the product of equilibrium concentrations of reactants each concentration term being raised to its stoichiometric coefficient.
Consider the following reaction at equilibrium.
aA + bB ⇌ cC + dD
Applying law of mass action
R_f ∝ [A]^a[B]^b
R_f = K_f[A]^a[B]^b
R_b ∝ [C]^c[D]^d
R_b = K_f[C]^c[d]^d
At equilibrium
K_f[A]^a[B]^b = K_f[C]^c[d]^d
K_C = \(\frac{\mathrm{K}_{f}}{\mathrm{K}_{b}}=\frac{[\mathrm{C}]^{\mathrm{C}}[\mathrm{D}]^{d}}{[\mathrm{A}]^{\mathrm{a}}[\mathrm{B}]^{\mathrm{b}}}\)

(b) What is the effect of increase in temperature for the reaction?
2NO_2(g) ⇌ N_2(g)O₄(g); ∆H = -572.RJ
Answer:
Increase in temperature increases the rate of backward reaction because forward reaction is exothermic.

(c) Write the relationship between the solubility and solubility product of AB type salt.
Answer:
K_Sp = S² (or) S = √K_Sp

Question 34.
(a) Calculate the pH of 0.001 M NaOH. Assuming complete dissociation of base.
Answer:
[OH^– ] = 10^-3 M pOH = -log[10^-3] = 3
pH + pOH = 14 pH = 14 – 3 = 11

(b) Classify the following species into Lewis acid and Lewis base.
(i) HO^– (ii) BCl₃
Answer:
(i) HO^– → Lewis base (ii) BCl₃ → Lewis acid
(c) Give an example for basic buffer.
Answer:
NH₄Cl + NH₄OH

Part – E

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions earning FIVE marks: ( 2 x 5 = 10 )

Question 35.
(a) Explain Functional isomerism with an example.
Answer:
Two or more compounds having same molecular formula but different functional groups are called functional isomers. Ex: C₃H₆O

(b) For the compound. CHsC-CH = CH CH₃
(i) Write the bond line formula for the compound.
(ii) Identify the number of Sigma and Pi-bonds.
Answer:

(c) What are free radicals?
Answer:
A free radical can be defined as an atom or group of atoms having an odd or unpaired electron. Putting a dot (•) against the symbol of atom or group of atoms.

Question 36.
(a) How do you estimate carbon and hydrogen present in the organic compound by Leibigs method. (Diagram not necessary)
Answer:
Principle: A known mass of an organic compound is strongly heated with dry cupric oxide (CuO), when carbon and hydrogen are quantitatively oxidized to CO₂ and H₂O respectively. The masses of CO₂ and H₂O thus formed are determined. From this, the percentages of carbon and hydrogen can be calculated.

Procedure : Pure and dry oxygen is passed through the entire assembly of the apparatus (Figure) till the CO₂ and moisture is completely removed.

A boat containing weighed organic substances is introduced inside from one end of the combustion tube by opening it for a while. The tube is now strongly heated till the whole of the organic compound is burnt up. The flow of oxygen is continued to drive CO₂ and water vapours completely to the U-tubes. The apparatus is cooled and the U-tubes are weighed separately.

Observation and calculations:

1. Mass of organic compound taken = w.g.
2. Mass of water produced = x g (Increase in mass of CaCl₂ tube).
3. Mass of carbon dioxide produced = y g (Increase in mass of KOH tube).

To determine % of carbon:
Molar mass of CO₂ = 44g mol^-1
Now, 44g of CO₂ = contains 12 g of C
y g of CO₂ will contain of \(\frac{12 y}{44}\) f of C
This amount of carbon was present in w. g. of the substance
∴ % C = \(\frac{12 y}{44} \times \frac{100}{w}\)

To determine % of Hydrogen
Molar mass of water = 18 g mol^-1
Now, 18 g of H₂O contains 2 g of H₂O
∴ x g of H₂O will contain \(\frac{2 x}{18}\) g of H₂O
This amount of hydrogen was present in weight of substance.
∴ H₂ = \(\frac{2 x}{18} \times \frac{100}{w}\)

(b) What are nucleophiles? Give one example.
Ansert:
The molecules or negatively charged ions w hich are capable of donating an electron pair to • electron deficient centre of the substrate are called nucleophiles.

Question 37.
(a) Explain Free radical mechanism of chlorination of methane.
Answer:
Mechanism of chlorination of methane involves three types:

Step 1: Initiation: Chlorine absorbs energy and undergoes homolysis to give chlorine free radicals.

Step 2: Propagation: Chlorine free radical reacts with methane to give methyl free radical.

The methyl free radical reacts with chlorine to form methyl chloride and chlorine free radical.

Step 3: Termination: Free radials combine to form stable products.

(b) Complete the following reaction.
(i) CaC₂ + 2H₂O → _____ + ______
Answer:

(ii)

Answer: