Category: 1st PUC

Students can Download 1st PUC Economics Model Question Paper 1 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Economics Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Economics Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 100

Instructions:

1. Write the question numbers legibly in the margin.
2. Answer for a question should be continuous.

Section – A

I. Choose the correct answers: ( 1 × 5 = 5 )

Question 1.
Alternative uses of resources give rise to the problem of
(a) Rights
(b) Price
(c) Choice
(d) Chance
Answer:
(c) Choice.

Question 2.
O gives can be helpful in locating graphically the
(a) Mode
(b) Mean
(c) Median
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Median.

Question 3.
Railway transport introduced in India
(a) 1835
(b) 1776
(c) 1850
(d) 1853
Answer:
(a) 1850.

Question 4.
In pre-independent India he was the first to discuss the concept of a poverty line.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Gopalkrishna Gokhale
(c) Vinoba Bhave
(d) Vinoda bai
Answer:
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji.

Question 5.
India is an
(a) Industrial country
(b) Scientifically developed country
(c) Agrarian Nation
(d) Service developed country
Answer:
(c) Agrarian Nation

II. Fill in the blanks: ( 1 × 5 = 5 )

Question 6.
Most expensive method of interview is _________.
Answer:
Personal interview method.

Question 7.
In _________ method of classification upper limit of class is include.
Answer:
Inclusive method.

Question 8.
Taxes on incomes of individuals is called _________.
Answer:
Direct tax.

Question 9.
Indian system of medicine includes _________ systems.
Answer:
Six.

Question 10.
Forest are _________ resources.
Answer:
Natural.

III. Match the following: ( 1 × 5 = 5 )

Question 11.

1. Arithmetic Mean	1. Wholesale Price Index.
2. WPI	2. Chairperson of the Planning Commission.
3. Prime Minister	3. India and the knowledge economy.
4. World Bank	4. Milk production
5. White revolution	5. \(\bar{X}\)

Answer:
1-5
2-1
3-2
4-3
5-4

IV. Answer the following questions in a word sentence: ( 1 × 5 = 5 )

Question 12.
Give the meaning of standard deviation.
Answer:
Standard deviation is the positive square root of the mean of squared deviations from mean.

Question 13.
What is consumer awareness?
Answer:
Consumer awareness refers to awareness about the rights of consumers.

Question 14.
Why do people work?
Answer:
People work to get some earning for a living.

Question 15.
Give the meaning of infant mortality rate.
Answer:
Infant mortality rate is the death of babies per thousand live births.

Question 16.
Which country has the highest life expectancy?
Answer:
China has the highest life expectancy.

Section – B

V. Answer any four of the following questions in four sentence each. ( 2 × 4 = 8 )

Question 17.
Write any two qualities of good questionnaire.
Answer:

1. Questionnaire should not be too long
2. Questionnaire should be precise and clear.

Question 18.
Mention the types of classification of data.
Answer:
The types of classification of data are:

• Quantitative classification.
• Qualitative classification.
• Chronological classification.
• Spatial classification.

Question 19.
How can you obtain a frequency curve.
Answer:
The frequency curve is obtained by drawing a smooth freehand curve passing through the points of the frequency polygon as closely as possible. It may not necessarily pass through all the points of the frequency polygon, but it passes through them as closely as possible.

Question 20.
What is weighted arithmetic mean? Give formula.
Answer:
While calculating arithmetic mean, sometimes, it is essential to give weightage to various items according to their importance. For example, there are two commodities oranges and radish. You are interested in finding the average price of oranges and radish. We may give importance to the rise in price of oranges for which weights are to be given. To calculate the average of both the products we use weighted arithmetic mean.

Question 21.
Mention different techniques for measuring correlation.
Answer:
There are three important techniques used to measure correlation. They are as follows:

1. Scatter diagrams
2. Karl Pearson’s coefficient of correlation
3. Spearman’s rank corrilation theorem

Question 22.
Mention the name of any four statistical tools.
Answer:
The most important statistical tools are the measures of central tendency, dispersion, correlation bar diagrams, pie chart, histogram, etc.

VI. Answer any five of the following questions in four sentences each. ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 23.
List out the important export goods of India before independence.
Answer:
The important export goods of India before independence were raw silk, cotton, wool, sugar, indigo, jute, etc.

Question 24.
List out the features of poorest households.
Answer:
Starvation and hunger are the main features of the poorest households. They do not possess any assets. They live in slums and some sleep in public places. In rural areas, they are landless labourers. Many do not get even two meals a day. They lack basic literacy and skills and have limited economic opportunities.

Question 25.
What are the two major sources of human capital in a country?
Answer:
Education and health are two main sources of human capital. Education raises the standard and quality of living of people. It increases the productive capacity and productivity of the workforce by enhancing their skills. Health indirectly helps in the economic development by supplying active energetic and healthy work force for better production.

Question 26.
How many lenders exploited the rural farmers?
Answer:
Moneylenders and traders exploited small and marginal farmers and landless labourers by:

• Charging very high rates of interest.
• Manipulating the accounts to keep them permanently in a debt trap.
• Trespassing the agricultural lands by misusing their illiteracy.
• Making debtors into bonded labourers.

Question 27.
Who are not included in labour force?
Answer:
The women who carry out household works like cooking, fetching water and fuel wood and participating in farm labour are generally not included in labour force. This is mainly because, they are not paid wages in cash or in the form of grains mostly there is no payment for them.

Question 28.
Which are the economic infrastructures?
Answer:
The economic infrastructural facilities are those which directly contribute towards economic development. The main economic infrastructures are energy, transportation, communication, banking, insurance, warehouse, etc.

Question 29.
What is non-renewable resources? Give two examples.
Answer:
Non-renewable resources are those which get exhausted with extraction and use.
Example: mineral resources like petrol, coal, iron ore, etc.

Section – C

VII. Answer any three of the following questions in twelve sentence each. ( 3 × 4 = 12 )

Question 30.
Briefly explain bow statistics helps to study economics.
Answer:
Statistics plays a very important role in the field of economics. It helps in study of economics in many ways:
1. It helps to understand economic problems: By using various statistical tools, effort is being made to find the causes behind the economic problems with the help of qualitative and the quantitative facts. Once the causes of a problem are identified. it is easier to formulate certain policies to tackle them.

2. It enables an economist to present economic facts in a precise and definite form: Statistics help the economists to present economic facts with accuracy. It also helps in proper comprehension of that is stated in the subject matter. When economic facts are expressed in statistical terms. they become exact. Exact facts are more convincing than vague statements. For instance, saying 350 people have died in Kashmir unrest since 2000. is more accurate than saying that a lot of people have died in the unrest.

3. Helps in condensing mass data into a few numerical measures: Statistics condenses the mass data into a few numerical measures like mean, variance, correlation, etc. These numerical measures help to summarise data. For example, it would be impossible to remember the income of all the people of a country. But we can remember average income i.e., per capita income.

4. It is used to find relationships between different economic factors: An economist may be interested in finding out what happens to the demand for a commodity when its price changes or what will be impact on inflation, when the government has more budget deficits. Such situations can be dealt, if any relationship exists between the various economic factors. Here, the nature of relationship can be studied with the help of statistical tools.

5. It helps in formulation of plans and policies: Sometimes, formulating plans and policies require the knowledge of future trends. For instance, an economic planner has to decide in 2010 how much the economy should produce in 2016-17. In other words, one must know what could be the expected level of consumption in 2016-17. So. the statistical tools to predict consumption in 2016-17 could be based on the data of consumption of past years obtained by surveys.

Question 31.
Briefly explain sampling errors.
Answer:
Sampling error refers to the differences between the sample estimate and the actual value of a characteristic of the population. It is the error that occurs when you make an observation from the samples taken from the population.

Thus, the difference between the actual value of a parameter of the population and its estimate is the sampling error. It is possible to reduce the magnitude of sampling error by taking a larger sample.

For example, suppose the height of 5 students (in inches) are 50, 55, 60, 65, 70. Now, the average height will be calculated by adding all these observations and dividing the sum by 5 . then we get 60 inches. If we select a sample of two students with height of 50 and 60 inches, then average height of sample will be 50 + 60 divided by 2, we get 55 inches. Here the sampling error of the estimate will be 60 (true value) minus 55 (estimate) = 5.

Question 32.
Write a note on classification of data.
Answer:
The raw data is classified in various ways depending on the purpose. Generally data can be classified as follows:

• Chronological classification: When the data is grouped according to time, it is called as chronological classification, in such a classification, data are classified either in ascending or in descending order with reference to time such as years, quarters, months weeks days, etc.
• Spatial classification: If the data are classified with reference to geographical locations such as countries, states, cities, districts, etc., it is called spatial classification.
• Qualitative classification: When the data are classified on the basis of certain attributes or qualities like literacy, religion, gender, marital status etc., then it is called qualitative classification. These attributes can be classified on the basis of either the presence or the absence of a qualitative characteristic.
• Quantitative classification: If the classification of data is done on the basis of certain characteristics like height, weight. age, income, marks of students etc., it is called as quantitative classification.

Question 33.
Find the standard deviation for the following data. 8, 9, 15, 23, 5, 11, 19, 8, 10, 12.
Answer:


Question 34.
Mention the properties of correlation co-efficient.
Answer:
The following are the major properties of correlation coefficient:

• Correlation ‘r’ has no unit, it is a pure number. It means units of measurement are not part of ‘r’.
• A negative value of ‘r’ indicates an inverse relation. A change in one variable is associated with change in the other variable in the opposite direction. For instance, when price of tomato increases, its demand decreases.
• If ‘r’ is positive the two variables move in the same direction. When the price of coffee rises, a substitute of tea, the demand for tea increases.
• The value of the correlation coefficient lies between minus one and plus one. (-1 ≤ r ≤ 1).
• If r = 0, the two variables are uncorrelated. There is no linear relation between them. However, other types of relations may be there.
• If r =1 or r = -1, the correlation is perfect. The relation between them is exact.
• A low value of ‘r’ indicates a weak linear relation. Its value is said to be low when it is close to zero.
• The magnitude of ‘r’ is unaffected by the change of origin and change of scale.

VIII. Answer any four of the following questions in twelve sentence each. ( 4 × 4 = 16 )

Question 35.
Explain the demographic profile of India during the colonial past.
Answer:
The various details about the population of British India were first collected through a census in 1881. It revealed the unevenness in India’s population growth. Subsequently, every ten years census was conducted. Before 1921, India was in the first stage of demographic transition. The second stage of transition began after 1921.

During British rule, the overall literacy level was less than 16%. Out of this, the female literacy level was at a negligible low of about 7%. Public health facilities were either unavailable to large chunks of population or when available, were highly inadequate. Consequently, water and air-borne diseases were common and took a huge number of deaths.

The mortality rate was very high and in that particularly, the infant mortality rate was quite alarming i.e., it was 218 per thousand. The life expectancy was also very low i.e., 44 years in contrast to the present 68 years. There was also extensive poverty prevailed in India during the colonial period which contributed to the worsening demographic profile of India during British period.

Question 36.
Write a short note on land reforms in India.
Answer:
Land reforms refer to changes in the ownership of land holdings. At the time of independence, the land tenure system was characterized by intermediaries like zamindars, jagirdars etc.. who were just indulged in collecting rent from the actual cultivators without contributing towards improvements on the agricultural laid. The low productivity of the agricultural sector forced India to import food from USA. At this juncture, the land reforms were introduced.

After introduction of land reforms, steps were taken to abolish intermediaries and to make the tillers the owners of land. The idea behind this move was that ownership of land would make incentives to the tillers to invest in making improvements provided sufficient capital was made available to them. Abolition of zamindari system and ceiling on land holdings were the major land reforms introduced immediately after independence.

Question 37.
Write a short note on outsourcing.
Answer:
Outsourcing is a process in which a company hires regular service from external sources, usually from other countries, which was previously provided internally. It includes legal advice, computer service, advertisement, security, etc.

As a form of economic activity, outsourcing has intensified in recent years due to fast mode of communication network. Many services like voice based business processes, record keeping, accountancy, banking services, music recording, film editing, book transcription, clinical advice or even teaching are being outsourced by companies in developed countries to India.

The modem telecommunication links like internet, the text, voice and visual data in respect of these senders is digitized and transmitted throughout the world. Most of the multinational corporations and small companies are outsourcing their services to India where they can be availed at a cheaper cost. The low wage rates and availability of skilled labour in India have made it a favorite destination for global outsourcing.

Question 38.
List out the major problems of rural development.
Answer:
the major problems which need fresh initiatives for development in rural India are as follows:

1. Development of human resources: The development of human resources include promotion of literacy particularly female literacy, education and skill development, providing health care by addressing both sanitation and public health.

2. Land reforms: The land reforms include ceiling on land holdings, prevention of fragmentation and subdivision of land and making the tiller as the owner of the land.

3. Infrastructure development: The development of infrastructure like provision of electricity, irrigation, banking, marketing, transportation (village roads, feeder roads to nearby highways), agricultural research centres, information, etc.

4. Poverty alleviation measures: Special measures for poverty alleviation and bringing progress among weaker sections of the population and giving importance to productive employment opportunities are also part of the major issues of rural economy.

Question 39.
Briefly explain the state of infrastructure in rural India.
Answer:
Majority of people in India live in rural areas. In spite of so much of technological progress in the world, rural women are still using bio-fuels like agricultural waste, dried dung and fire wood to meet their energy requirement. They have to walk long distances to bring fuel, water and other basic needs.

According to the latest estimates, in rural India only 56% of households have electricity connection and 43% still use kerosene. About 90% of the rural households use bio- fuels for cooking. Tap water availability is limited to only 24 % rural households. About 76 % of the population drinks water from open sources like wells, tanks, ponds, lakes, rivers, canals etc. Access to improved sanitation in rural areas only 20 %.

Question 40.
What are the various indicators of Human Development index?
Answer:
The various indicators of human development are as follows:

• Human development index: It consists of standard of living index, life expectancy at birth and educational attainment. If the HDI is high it is good indicator of human development.
• Life expectancy at birth: It is the average number of years a person is expected to live. In other words, it is the longevity of life. A high value of life expectancy better indicates a quality human development.
• Adult literacy rate: It is the average number of persons who have reading and writing skills with basic local knowledge. It is expressed in percentages. The high literacy rate shows high human development.
• GDP per capita: The gross domestic product per head is also one of the indicators of human development. The high value of GDP per capita indicates a better human development.
• Infant mortality rate: It means the death of babies per thousand live births. If the IMR is high it indicates low human development.
• Maternal mortality rate: It shows the death of mothers per 1 lakh live births. If MMR is low, it indicates a better human development.
• Population using improved sanitation: If the percentage of population using improved sanitation is more, it is a good indicator of human development.
• Population with sustainable access to improved water sources: If the percentage of population using sustainable access to improved water source is high, it is a good indicator of human development.
• People living below poverty line: If less people are living below poverty line, then it is a good indicator of human development.
• Percentage of children undernourished: If the number of undernourished children is diminishing, then it is a good indicator of human development.

Section – D

IX. Answer any two of the following questions in about twenty sentence each. ( 2 × 6 = 12 )

Question 41.
Draw a arithmetic line graph using following data value of imports export of India (in 100 crores).

Answer:

For Blind Students Only

What is tabulation? What are the parts of table.
Answer:
When data is represented in rows and columns, it is called tabulation. To construct a table, it is important to know the different components of a good statistical table. When all the components are put together systematically, they form a table.

Tabulation can be done using one way, two way or three way classification depending upon the number of characteristics involved. A good table should have the following parts:

• Table number: Table number is given to a table for identification purpose. If more than one table is presented, it is the table number that distinguishes one table from another. It is given at the top or at the beginning of the title of the table.
• Title: The title of the table gives about the contents of the table. It has to be very clear, brief and carefully worded, so information interpretations made from the table are clear and free from any confusion.
• Captions: These are the column headings given as designations to explain the figures of the column.
• Stubs: These are headings given to rows of the table. The designations of the rows are also called stubs or stub items and the left column is known as stub column.
• Body of the table: It is the main part and it contains the actual data. Location of any one data in the table is fixed and determined by the row and column of the table.
• Head note/Unit of measurement: The units of measurement of the figures in the table should always be stated along with the title. If figures are large. they should be rounded off and the method of rounding should be indicated.
• Source: It is a brief statement or phrase indicating the source of data presented in the table. If more than one source is there, all the sources are to be mentioned.
• Note: It is the last part of the table, It explains the specific feature of the data content of the table which is not self explanatory and has not been explained earlier.

Question 42.
Calculate average marks of the following students using:
(a) Direct method
(b) Step deviation method.

Answer:

(a) Direct Method:

(b) Step Deviation Method:

Question 43.
The yield of rice per acre for 10 districts of a state is as under.

Calculate standard deviation and coefficient variation.
Answer:
QD for rice: Arrange the given observations in the ascending order.
X: 12 12 12 15 18 18 22 23 29 34
Calculation of lower quartile (Q₁):

Calculation of upper quartile (Q₃):

The size of 8.25^th item = size of 8^th item + 0.25 items
(0.025 item = size of 9^th item – size of 8^th item)
∴Q₃ = size of 8.25^th item
Q₃ = 23 + 0.25 (29 – 23) = 23 + 0.25 (6) = 23 + 1.5
Q₃ = 24.5

X. Answer any two of the following questions in about twenty sentence each. ( 2 × 6 = 12 )

Question 44.
Explain the important areas of liberalization.
Answer:
Liberalization was one of the reforms of New Economic Policy of 1991. It was introduced to put an end to the restrictions and open up various sectors of the economy. The following are the important areas of liberalization:

1. Deregulation of industrial sector: The liberalization policy removed many restrictions enforced on industrial sector. Industrial licensing was abolished for almost all but product categories like alcohol, cigarettes, hazardous chemicals, industrial explosives, electronics, aerospace and drugs and pharmaceuticals.

The only industries which are not reserved for the public sector are defence equipments, atomic energy generation and railway transport. Many goods produced by the small scale industries have now been de-reserved.

2. Financial sector reforms: The financial sector consists of financial institutions like commercial banks, investment banks, stock exchange operations and foreign exchange market.

The financial sector in India is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The RBI decides the amount of money that the banks can keep with themselves, fixes interest rates, nature of lending to various sectors, etc.

The major objective of financial sector reforms is to reduce the role of RBI from regulator to facilitator of financial sector. That means, the financial sector may be allowed to take decisions on many matters independent of RBI.

The financial sector reform policies led to the establishment of private sector banks both Indian and foreign. Foreign investment limit in banks was raised to around 50%. The banks which fulfill certain conditions have been given freedom to set up new branches without the approval of the RBI. Foreign institutional investors (FIT) like merchant bankers, mutual funds and pension funds are now allowed to invest in Indian financial markets.

3. Tax reforms: These are the reforms which are concerned with government’s taxation and public expenditure policies which are collectively known as its fiscal policy. There are two types of taxes, direct and indirect.

Since 1991, there has been a continuous reduction in the taxes on individual incomes as it was felt that high rates of income tax were an important reason for tax evasion. It is now widely accepted that moderate rates of income tax encourage savings and voluntary disclosure of income.

The rate of corporation tax (tax on income of companies) which was very high earlier has been gradually reduced. A new tax called Goods and Services Tax (GST) has been introduced from 1.7.2017 to bring uniformity in indirect taxes.
In order to encourage better compliance on the part of tax payers, many procedures have been simplified and the rates also substantially lowered.

4. Foreign exchange reforms: During 1991, the Government took an immediate measure to resolve the balance of payments crisis, the rupee was devalued against foreign currencies. This led to an increase in the inflow of foreign exchange. It also set the tone to free the determination of rupee value in the foreign exchange market from government control. At present, the market forces i.e., demand and supply, determine the exchange rates.

5. Trade and investment policy reforms: A new trade and investment policy under liberalization strategy was made to increase international competitiveness of industrial production and a foreign investments and technology into the economy. The aim was also to promote the efficiency of the local industries and the adoption of modem technologies.

To protect Indian industries, the government was following quantitative restrictions on imports which encouraged tight control over imports. At the same time, tariffs were very high. These policies reduced efficiency and competitiveness which led to a slower growth of manufacturing sector.

The main objectives of Trade and Investment Policy were:

• To remove quantitative restrictions on imports.
• To reduce quantitative restrictions in exports.
• Reducing tariff rates.
• Removal of licensing system.

Import licensing was abolished except in case of hazardous and environmentally sensitive industries. Quantitative restrictions on imports of manufactured consumer goods and agricultural products were also fully removed. Export duties have been removed to increase the competitive position of Indian goods in the international markets. A process of disinvestment was also initiated by selling of part of equity shares of public sector enterprises to the public.

Question 45.
Explain the role of education in the economic development of a nation.
Answer:
The education plays a predominant role in economic development of India in the following way:

1. It modernizes the attitude and behaviour of the people: Education brings favourable changes in the attitude and behaviour of people. It gives inputs like what is right and what is wrong and contributes for taking sound and judgments.

2. Promotes science and technology: Education always provides the knowledge about latest technology to people who know reading and writing. It explains the new methods of production through innovations in various sectors of the economy. They providing scope for latest techniques of production, it develops agriculture, industry, transport. power, etc.

3. Increases mobility of labours: Education helps the labourers to search for more re warding employment opportunities all over the world. It helps to chooses a suitable career according to one’s educational qualifications. It makes them to move from country to country or state to state as and when required.

4. Creates national and developmental consciousness: Education creates civic, national and developmental consciousness among the literates. It provides information about the past events in History and tells about the freedom struggle of great national leaders like Mahatma Gandhi, Bhagath Singh, Subhas Chandra Bose and others. It makes people to develop a sense of patriotism and helps them to adopt strategies of progress in life.

5. Contributes to skilled and trained workers: Education generates skilled and trained labour force needed for the development of the country. Education includes both general and technical education. The general education includes Bachelor of Arts. Bachelor of Commerce.

Bachelor in Business Administration: at the degree level and technical education includes Bachelor in Engineering in different streams like mechanical, civil, electronic, electrical, computer. etc. All these contribute for the supply of skilled labour for the overall development of the country.

6. Act as source of knowledge: Education is a house of knowledge for all purposes. Anything to know we need to be literate. It helps people to take decisions on the basis of their knowledge gained in different stages while getting education.

7. Develops moral values: As education provides number of stories and incidents people’s lives, people can definitely develop moral values. These moral values are included in their daily life. Some of the moral values are not to sell adulterated products, in case of seller and in case of buyer, not to create inconvenience for others in their routine life and so on.

8. Creates awareness about culture and politics: Education always provides complete information about cultural heritage of any nation. It explains how they are constructed with the investment of money and human capital. It helps them to preserve the historical monuments, inscriptions and other valuable items. It also provides day-to-day information about politics when the person is literate.

Question 46.
What are the types of unemployment in India?
Answer:
The kinds of un-employment are as follows:

1. Disguised unemployment.
2. Seasonal unemployment.
3. Open unemployment.
4. Under employment.
5. Technical employment.
6. Frictional employment.

1. Disguised unemployment: It is the of unemployment, where we can come across excess number of workers engaged in the some work hut actually less number of workers required. For instance, suppose a fainer has four acres of land and he actually needs only two workers and half to carry out various operations on his farm in a year, but if he employs five workers and his family members such as his wife and children, this situation is called disguised unemployment.

2. Seasonal unemployment: It is the type of unemployment, where the rural people get employment only during a particular season. We have noticed that many people migrate to urban areas, pick up a job and stay there for some time, but come back to their home villages as soon as the rainy season begins.

This is because work in agriculture is seasonal: there are not many employment opportunities in a village for all the months in a year. When there is no work to do on farms, people go to urban areas and look for temporary jobs. This is one of the instances of seasonal unemployment.

Section – E

XI. Answer any two of the following project oriented questions. ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 47.
Record the daily expenditure quantities bought and prices paid per unit of the daily purchases, such as rice, toordal, onion and milk of your family for two weeks. How has the price change affected your family.’
Answer:
The following table shows the list of items with quantities purchased by a family:

Now we need to calculate CPI by calculating price relative with the help of formulae.

Calculation of Living Index or Consumer Prise Index is calculated as follows:
\(\mathrm{CPI}=\frac{\Sigma \mathrm{WP}}{\Sigma \mathrm{W}}=\frac{1600}{15}=106.66\)
CPI = 106.66
Comment: It shows that there is an increase in price by 6.66%, which has a little effect on standard of living.

Question 48.
Suppose you are a resident of a village, suggest a few measures to tackle the problem of poverty.
Answer:
If we support in implementing the following programmes successfully, we can easily eradicate the poverty:

• Swamajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY)
• Swamajayanthi Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY)
• Pradhana Manthri Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)
• National Food for Work Programme (NFWP)
• Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (SGRY)
• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme (MGNREGP)
• Public Distribution System (PDS)
• Integrated Child Development Scheme (LCDS)
• Mid-day Meals Scheme
• Pradhana Manthri Gram Sadak Yojana
• Indira Awas Yojana
• Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana.

Question 49.
Prepare a list of causes of land degradation in India.
Answer:
Land in India suffers from varying degrees and types of degradation. These are increasing mainly due to the factors mentioned below:

• Deforestation, i.e. reckless cutting down of trees resulting in loss of vegetation.
• Indiscriminate and over exploitation of forest products such as fuel wood and over grazing.
• Conversion of forest lands into agricultural lands.
• Forest fire and faulty methods of cultivation.
• Excessive application of pesticides and insecticides. .
• Disproportionate and excessive use of chemical fertilizers in Indian agriculture.
• The irrigation systems in India are not properly planned and managed.
• Over exploitation of ground water for various competing utilities like human settlement, industrialization, etc.
• No proper introduction of crop rotation techniques and organic farming.
• Illiteracy and ignorance of rural population in respect of causes and effects of land degradation.

Land is indispensable for human settlement. If proper care ¡s not taken for the conservation of land and water, there shall be severe scarcity of water and natural resources in future which may lead to conflict among the countries.

Students can Download 1st PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper 2018 (South), Karnataka 1st PUC Political Science Model Questions with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 (South)

Time: 3:15 Hours
Max. Marks: 100

I. Answer the following questions in ONE sentence each: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Who is the father of Political Science?
Answer:
Aristotle is known as father of Political Science.

Question 2.
Name the supreme association of ail associations.
Answer:
‘Polis’ means Greek City-States.

Question 3.
What is Sovereignty?
Answer:
Sovereignty is the supreme power of the state.

Question 4.
Name the root word of constitution?
Answer:
The root of the term constitution is the Latin word ‘Constituere’.

Question 5.
Who was the chairman of draft committee of Indian constitution?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the chairman of the drafting committee.

Question 6.
Who is the present speaker of Lok sabha?
Answer:
Siimithra Mahajan is the present speaker of Lok sabha.

Question 7.
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The Vice president presides over the Rajya Sabha.

Question 8.
What is the term of vice president of India?
Answer:
The term of the Vice President of India is 5 years.

Question 9.
Which is the apex-court in India?
Answer:
Supreme court is the apex court.

Question 10.
How many high courts are there at present in india?
Answer:
There are 21 high courts are there in India.

II. Answer any Ten of the following questions in 2-3 sentences each. (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 11.
Name the subject matters of political science.
Answer:
The subject matter of political science is state and government.

Question 12.
‘Man is a social animal’. How?
Answer:
Aristotle said, man, is a social animal because man can fulfill his basic desires, needs, requirements and protect himself. He cannot live all alone himself and he is not self-sufficient and self-reliant.

Question 13.
Write the 2 aspects of sovereignty.
Answer:
Two aspects of Sovereignty are Internal and External Sovereignty.

Question 14.
Write the types of Liberty.
Answer:

• Natural Liberty.
• Civil Liberty.
• Political Liberty.
• Economic Liberty.

Question 15.
What is Dictatorship? Give an example.
Answer:
A form of government in which absolute power is concentrated in a person or group is called dictatorial government.

Question 16.
List out the Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens.
Answer:

• Right to equality.
• Right to liberty.
• Right against exploitation.
• Right to freedom of religion.
• Cultural and educational rights.
• Right to constitutional remedies.

Question 17.
Give, the meaning of unitary form of government.
Answer:
In the unitary system of government, where all the powers and authority of the state is concentrated in the single Central government and the supreme power is exercised by it.
Eg:
England, France, Japan, etc.

Question 18.
Made a list of write orders under act 32 of Indian constitution.
Answer:

• Habeas corpus.
• Prohibition.
• Certiorari.
• Oro – warrant.

Question 19.
Write the qualifications to become a member of Loksabha.
Answer:

• He must be a citizen of India.
• He must not be less than 25 years of age.
• Must be eligible as voters.
• Must process any other qualification as may be prescribed by parliament.

Question 20.
Name the 3 emergency periods issued by president of India.
Answer:

• Under article 352 National emergency.
• Under article 356 state emergency.
• Under article 360 financial emergency.

Question 21.
What is an independency of judiciary?
Answer:
It is one that is free from legislative and executive control.

Question 22.
Mention the 3 types of panchayath institutions of panchayath raj system.
Answer:

• Village Panchayat
• Panchayat
• SamitiZilla Parishad

III. Answer any EIGHT of the following question in 15-20 sentences each : (8 × 5= 40)

Question 23.
Explain the scope of Political science.
Answer:
Aristotle described political science as a ‘master science’ which made it perhaps the greatest contribution to the making of political science scientific. Hie term “Scope” refers to the subject or the boundaries of a particular branch of knowledge. There is no perfect agreement among the political thinkers as to the problems, which come under the study of political science. Broadly speaking, there are three groups of writers holding different views on the scope of political science.

The first group of writers like Garies, Gamer, Goodnow, and Bluntschli restricted the scope of political science only to the study of the state.

The second group of writers like Prof. Sheley and Dr. Stephen Leacock said that political science deals with government only.

The third group of writers like Gettell, Gilchrist, Paul Janet, and Prof. Laski maintained that the scope of political science extends to both state and government.Prof. Laski maintains that the state, in reality, means the government.
We may agree with the third group of writers that political science is a study of both state and government is the steering wheel of the ship of the state. There can be no state without a government, the state remains the central subject of our study, and the whole mechanism of government revolves around it.

Scope according to the UNESCO; the international Political Science Association at its Paris Conference in 1948 discussed the scope of political science and marked out its subject matter as follows:

1. Political Theory:
Political Theory, History of Political Ideas.

2. Government:
The Constitution, the Government-Regional and Local Government, Public Administration, Economics and Social functions of government, Comparative political institutions.

3. Parties, Groups and Public Opinion:
Political Parties, Group and Associations, Citizen Participation in Government and administration, Public Opinion.

4. International Relations:
International relations, International organization, and Administration, International Law.

Question 24.
Discribe the importance of state.
Answer:
1. To realize social good:
the existence of the state enables the realization of social good.

2. Protection of rights and duties:
rights and duties enjoyed by men today can exist only within a state. It also promotes a smooth relationship between the government and the governed.

3. Protection to life and property:
state is the basic structure for the maintenance of law and order, so the property of the people is also protected by the state.

4. Protection of Weaker section of Society:
The state also protects the weaker section of the society like women, children, and minorities.

5. State creates Order in Society:
A society without a state will be one of anarchy. Political organization is necessary7 to prevent anarchy.

6. State creates order and Progress m the world:
The conception of the state is not only important within a state to create order but even outside the state in the international sphere.

Question 25.
Explain the features of sovereignity.
Answer:
Jean Bodin – who was the first to explain the concept of sovereignty said: “Sovereignty is the supreme power over citizens and subjects unrestrained by law.”

According to Hugo Grotius: “Sovereignty is the supreme power vested in him whose acts are not subjected to any other who will can’t be can overridden.
”Characteristics of Sovereignty:
a. Permanent:
Sovereignty is permanent. Every state is sovereign it is accordingly permanent. The death of the rules or the change in government doesn’t mean any change in sovereign power. It comes to an end when the state is destroyed or is conquered and ruled by some external power.

b. Universality:
Sovereignty embraces each and every person and every association within the territory of the state. No individual or association in the state can disobey the sovereign authority of the state.

c. Sovereignty can’t be transferred:
The state has no right to give away its sovereignty. When a state loses or has to give up a part of the territory and population to another state, that part comes under the control of that state.

d. Indivisible:
Sovereignty can’t be divided. The division of sovereignty leads to the destruction of sovereignty.

e. Absoluteness:
Sovereignty is absolute. There can be no legal power within the state, superior to it. All individuals, associations come under the absolute power of the state. The state is completely independent.

Question 26.
What are the kinds of equality? Explain.
Answer:
1. Natural Equality:
It implies that nature has created all men equal. It can also be defined that it insists on removing all man-made and artificial inequalities and treat all equally.

2. Civil and legal Equality:
Implies that all are equal before law and all are protected equally irrespective of caste, class, color, race, etc.,

3. Political Equality:
Implies that all the citizens, irrespective any type of difference are entitled to participate in the affairs of state. All have equal voice in the government. It is based on principle of universal adult Franchise.

4. Economic Equality:
Implies removal of inequalities based on wealth and insists on certain minimum standard of income to all to meet their basic needs.5. Social Equality: Implies every individual without any discrimination must be given equal opportunity for the development of their personalities.

Question 27.
Write the meaning and features of written constitution.
The features of written constitution are explained below.

• A written constitution is written in the document by the constituent assembly.
• It is deliberately framed by the constitutional experts.
• It came in to effect from a particular date.
• In the written form of constitution, all the provisions relating to the organization of the government, rights, and
• duties of the citizens are clearly mentioned.
• In this system the amendment procedure is very difficult and rigid.
• Written constitution provides the provisions of independence of judiciary.
• In the written constitution all provisions are clearly mentioned and the contents are precise.

Question 28.
Describe the meaning and features of federal government.
Answer:
1. Division of Powers:
A federal government is characterized by the existence of two governments- the center and the local government created on the basis of division of powers. Both are independent and autonomous within their spheres of powers and yet interdependent. The residuary powers rest with the center in some states (e.g. India)and in the hands of local units in some states (e.g. Great Britain).

2. Supremacy of the constitution:
In a Federal system, the power enjoyed by the centre and local units is original because both derive their powers from the constitution. This avoids any confusion or contention in the sharing of power. The division of powers is based on necessity and convenience.

3. Written and rigid constitution:
The constitution in a federal government would definitely be rigid because it has to deal with powers related to both center and local governments. Each and every detail should be explained in a written form in order to avoid any clash of jurisdiction or possible over-lapping of responsibilities. The amendment procedure would be rigid which protects the interest of the federation from frequent, mindless changes to the constitution.

4. Special provision for settlement of disputes:
In a presidential system, in order to settle disputes arising between the states or between centre and the states, the judiciary has been assigned the job of interpreting the provisions of the constitution, thus acting as custodian and guardian of the constitution.

5. Power of amendment:
In a presidential system, to amend the constitution both the centre and the local governments have been assigned equal powers. No constitutional amendment can be made without the consent of federal units.

Question 29.
Write a note on draft committee of Indian constitution.
Answer:
The drafting committee of the Indian constitution has been formed on 29th August 1947 and B.R. Ambedkar was elected as a chairman. The main responsibility that entrusted to the drafting committee to draft the new constitution. It consists of 7 members called B.R. Ambedkar, chairman, B.L. Mitter, N: Gopalaswamy Ayvangar, Alladi KrishswamyAyyar, Dr. K.M Munshi, Saiyid Mohd Saadullah, D.R Khaitan.

The drafting committee prepared the first draft which was published in February 1948. It prepared a second draft which was published in October 1948 and completed its work in 141 days. On 29^th November 1949, the constituent assembly accepts and enacted the Indian constitution.

Question 30.
Explain the Basic principles of preamble of indian constitution.
Answer:
The preamble of the constitution of India explains the aims and ideology and reads as: WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN, DEMOCRATIC, SOCIALIST, SECULAR and REPUBLIC Nation and securing to all its citizens.

• JUSTICE – social, economic and political.
• LIBERTY – of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship.
• EQUALITY – of status and of opportunity and to promote among them all.
• FRATERNITY – assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and the integrity of the Nation.

The idea of the preamble has been borrowed from constitution of U.S.A.

Question 31.
Discuss the composition of Vidhana Sabha in state.
Answer:
There is a legislative assembly for every state. The number of members depends upon the population of the state. But it can not have less than 60 and more than 500 members. The members are chosen by direct election by people of the state. The governor has been given the power to nominate one or two members of the Anglo Indian community legislative assembly is five years.

Question 32.
Write about Vice president of India.
Answer:
Powers and functions of the president of India are as follows: In the Parliamentary government, the position of the President is that of a respectful figurehead, representing the honor and dignity of the people of India. It has become a fashion to label the President as “a rubber stamp’, the impression is that he does nothing but signing bills brought before him. But there are occasions that offer scope for independent decisions. When no party enjoys a majority, the power to appoint Prime minister rests with the President (Ar- tide 75).

In case of sudden demise of Prime minister, if the party fails to elect its leader, at the earliest, President may appoint a person of his choice as the Prime minister. Importantly, if a government loses majority and recommends for the dissolution of the house (Lok Sabha), it is pure power of the President to dissolve the parliament or not (Article 85).

The powers and functions of the President are as follows:
1.Legislative Functions:
The legislative functions are detailed below:

1. To summon, prorogue and dissolve the Parliament.

2. The President enjoys the power to address the Parliament. It is normally done after general elections or the first session of the year. It is generally called Presidential speech. This inaugural speech outlines the objectives and priorities of the government.

3. In passing the bills, if a deadlock arises due to non-agreement between two houses of the parliament, the President may call for a joint session of both the houses.

4. The President may address Lok sabha or Rajya sabha or both any time and also may send a message to both the houses of parliament to look into a bill.

5. In the considered view of the President, if he is satisfied that the Anglo-Indian community is not adequately represented, he may nominate 12 members to Rajya Sabha and 2 members to Lok sabha.

6. Prior permission of the President is essential while dealing with bills relating to the formation of new states, alteration of boundaries and some special bills like the finance bills.

7. No bill can become a law without the assent of the President. He enjoys the power to withhold a bill. This power is called ‘Veto power’. However, he cannot refuse his assent for finance bills. But he can withhold assent for a nonmoney bill. But if the same is resubmitted for signature even without changes, he cannot refuse to sign it.

8. The President enjoys the power of issuing Ordinance when the parliament is not in session. It will have the same power and effect similar to that of a law made by the Parliament provided the same is ratified by the Parliament within 6 weeks of its passage. Otherwise, it ceases to be a law and is considered null and void or zero.

Question 33.
Describe the Essentials of an independent judiciary.
Answer:

• Selection of judges regardless of their political affiliation.
• Appointment of judges by the Chief Executive.
• Long and Security of tenure.
• Salaries and allowances are paid from Consolidated Fund.
• Bar on practice after retirement.
• Separation of judiciary from the executive and legislature.
• Impartiality in the administration of justice.
• Avoiding ambiguity in the judgement.
• Appointment of highly qualified judges and making judicial process less expensive.

Question 34.
Write the point of 73^rd Amendment of constitution.
Answer:
The 73^rd constitutional amendment act which came in to force on 1993 can be explained its provisions as below:

• 73<sup>rd<sup> constitutional amendment act provides reservation to SC, ST, Backward class women.
• The Panchayats can mobilize their revenue sources.
• Elections should be need within 6 months.
• The power to constitution of committees is rests with the state government.
• Members of parliament and assembly are enjoying the membership in Panchayats.
• The members of Panchayats have to elect by the elections.
• The age limit to contest the election is fixed to 21 years.
• The state election commission is the authority to conduct the elections.
• The Panchayats have power to impose tax.
• State finance commission has been established to review the finances of Panchayats.
• Panchayats can prepare and enforce the plans for economic and social development.

IV. Answer any Two of the following in 30 to 40 sentences each: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 35.
Distinguish between written and unwritten constitutions.
Answer:
The features of written constitution are explained below.
A written constitution is written in the document by the constituent assembly.

• It is deliberately framed by the constitutional experts.
• It came in to effect from a particular date.
• In the written form of constitution, all the provisions relating to the organization of the government, rights, and
• duties of the citizens are clearly mentioned.
• In this system the amendment procedure is very difficult and rigid.
• Written constitution provides the provisions of independence of judiciary.
• In the written constitution all provisions are clearly mentioned and the contents are in precise.

The features of unwritten constitution are explained as below.

• An unwritten constitution is not written by the constitution assembly but evolved over a period of time.
• It is not deliberately framed by the experts but grown by customs, traditions and usages.
• An unwritten constitution has not come in to effect from a particular date.
• In un written constitution the provisions with relates to the organization of the government, rights and duties
• of the citizens are the fruits of customs traditions and usages.
• In this system the amendment procedure is very easy and flexibleAn un written constitution is not clear and unsettled.

Question 36.
Explain the composition and functions of Rajyasabha.
Answer:
In federal representation the state is important. In India, the members of the Rajyasabha are indirectly elected for 6 yrs but 1/3^rd of them will retire even. 2 yrs. The Rajyasabha has 250 members out of whom 12 are nominated by the president for their contributions to science, literature, art and social service. The remaining 238 members are indirectly elected by the state legislative assemblies through a system of proportional representation.
The powers and functions of Rajyasabha are as follows:
1. Legislative functions:
Oh legislative matters, the Rajyasabha enjoys powers with the Loksabha except in case of a Money Bill or Financial Bill. Non-money Bill can originate in Rajyasabha and must get a 2/3 majority in the House and then proceeds to the Loksabha. The approval of both Houses is essential for a bill to become a law.

In case of disagreement between the two Houses on a bill, both the houses sit on a joint sitting presided by the speaker and the deadlock is resolved by a majority of the total number of members of both the houses present and voting.

2. Financial functions:
On the financial front, the Rajyasabha virtually has no powers. The procedure to deal with Money bills clearly states that a Money bill or financial bill cannot originate in the Rajyasabha. The Rajyasabha may discuss and suggest changes but have no right to reject or amend a Money Bill. It is left to the Loksabha to accept or reject its recommendations. In case, the Rajyasabha does not send back a Money bill back to the Loksabha within 14 days from the date of receipt of the bill, the bill is deemed passed, in the original form, by both the Houses.

3. Control over the executive:
The Rajyasabha’s hold over the executive is very minimal because the executive is not directly responsible to the upper house. However, it can seek information, and make clarifications on various policy matters. On issues of national and local importance, the members can grill the executive during debates and discussions during the Question Hour, the Adjournment motion, the Zero Hour, the Cut-Motion, Call- attention Motion, etc.

4. Constituent functions:
The Rajyasabha enjoys full powers with Loksabha in executing constituent functions. An amendment to provisions of the constitution can be initiated in either House of the parliament and must be passed by a 2/3 majority’ in both the Houses present and voting. If Rajyasabha does not pass an amendment bill, the amendment Bill stands defeated. In some special provisions apart from the 2/3 majority in both house of parliament and ratification by not less than 1/2 of the states is necessary.

5. Electoral functions:
The Rajyasabha shares the privilege of electing the highest constitutional functionaries, the President and Vice-president. The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the members of parliament along with the members of the State legislative assemblies. The members of both the houses of parliament elect the Vice-president.

6. Judicial functions:
The impeachment move against the President may be initiated in either house of the parliament. If Loksabha prefers the charge, Rajyasabha investigates the charge and passes a resolution by a 2/3 majority of the total membership of the house, then the President stands impeached.

There is no need for an impeachment against the Vice president who may be removed by a resolution of Rajyasabha passed by the majority of its members and consented to it by Loksabha. The Rajyasabha also participates in the removal of the highest constitutional functionaries such as the Chief Election Commissioner, the Vigilance Commissioner, etc.

7. Miscellaneous functions:
The Rajyasabha performs other functions as well as

• By a resolution Rajyasabha can create one or more All India Services.
• Continuation of emergency beyond the specified time must come before the Rajyasabha and Loksabha.
• Orders made by the President suspending enforcement of fundamental rights is required to be laid before the Rajyasabha and Loksabha.
• According to Article 249, the Rajyasabha by a resolution can ask the parliament to legislate on certain subjects in the State list.

Question 37.
Write the appointment and function of prime minister of India,
Answer:
The power and position of Prime minister is so powerful that he is referred to as The first among equals (primus intersperses). Lord Morley regards Prime minister as “the keystone of the cabinet arch.” Former British Prime Minister Harold Wilson considered Prime Minister as “a person who conducts an orchestra without using any instrument”. The greatest ever British Prime minister R.A.Butler once said, “A Prime minister must be a good butcher, and know all the joints.”

Article 74 of the constitution states that “there shall be a Council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister for the Union of India”, The Prime minister is elected from among the members of the majority party in Lok sabha. In case no party enjoys majority it is left to the discretion of the President to pick the Prime minister, who in his opinion will prove majority in a stipulated time.

Traditionally, the Prime minister should be from Loksabha. Some scholars compare the Prime minister to the Sun because complete administration revolves around him. B. R. Ambedkar compares the powers of Prime minister to that of the President of U.S.A,

The success or failure of a Prime minister largely depends upon the personality besides administrative knowledge and experience. For example, Nehru was known for his magnetic personality, Shastri for his soft-spoken, but firm nature, Mrs. Gandhi for ‘never forget or forgive enemies’ attitude and Rajiv Gandhi was progressive but parasitic. P. V. Narasimha Rho always regarded not making any decision as the best decision, whereas Vajpayee was emotional.The powers and function of the Prime minister are detailed below:

1.Formation of Ministry:
The primary task of the Prime minister on assuming office is the formation of the Council of ministers. Normally ministers are picked from the same political formation to ensure uniformity and continuity of policy However, nothing prevents Prime minister from picking any one as minister.

2. Allocation of Portfolios:
After forming the ministry the next important task is allocation of responsibilities to ministers. Certain key or heavy weight portfolios such as Home, Defence, Finance, Commerce and Industry, External affairs etc., are to be given to party heavy’ weights who enjoy a good clout and following among the party workers. Also to ensure efficiency and stability of the government. Prime minister enjoys the power of expanding and reforming the ministry.

3. Chairman of the Cabinet:
The cabinet meetings are held under the chairmanship of the Prime minister. The Cabinet is a deliberating forum and differences may come up. It is the responsibility of Prime minister to mediate and soften things and arrive at decisions. The Prime minister has the authority to decide the matters to be taken up by the cabinet and may accept or reject proposals. Normally the proposals brought by ministers for discussion are not rejected.

In the era of coalition politics, it is a challenge for the Prime minister to hold the flock together. It is very difficult. chair, a Cabinet full of divergent views, ideologies, and principles. For example, for the last fifteen years, we are a witness to pulls and pressures exerted on the Prime minister from different alliance partners.

4. Leader of Lok Sabha:
Prime minister is the leader of Lok sabha. All major decisions and announcements of the government are made by the Prime minister. It is the responsibility of the Prime minister to ensure that all bills brought before Lok sabha for approval are passed. And he has to defend the government on the floor of the bouse.

Though ministers are individually responsible to their ministries, it is the Prime minister who provides general leadership and direction. If any minister makes a mistake, the Prime minister has the power to guide and correct him.

5. Leader of the Government:
The decisions of the government however good, are subjected to scrutiny and criticism. The Prime minister, as leader of the government, has to defend policies and programs of the government both in and out of parliament.

6. Coordination and Supervision:
In running the administrative machinery Prime minister will have to encounter numerous problems ranging from routine to serious. Under the circumstances, it is essential to integrate different departments and see that they work smoothly and the ability of the Prime minister is tested on this count.

A Prime minister should not only pick a team but also retain it as a team till the end of the term. Whenever problems arise between departments, he has to mediate and sort it out amicably through dialogue and goodwill. The Prime minster is the general head of the government. Hence he has the responsibility of supervising the administration.

Though each Minister is in charge of a ministry, lack of general supervision results in poor administrative quality. To maintain quality in administration, the Prime minister will have to supervise. It not only gives him a general feel of the administration but also makes the ministers more responsible. The Prime Minister may correct the working of a particular ministry and offer suggestions.

7. Bridge between the President and the Parliament:
The Prime minister acts as a link between President and Parliament In a parliamentary government. As all executives powers are vested in the hands of the President, the Prime minister is duty-bound to keep the President informed about the decisions taken by the government.

Also, the President himself can call for any information from the government. The Prime minister not only acts as a bridge but also as the advisor to the President. Whenever necessary the President will look forward for advice. For example, the President seeks the advice of Prime minister before dissolving Lok sabha.

8. Power of Dissolution:
The Lok sabha exists as long as Prime minister wishes because even before the expiry of 5 years term, Prime minister may seek the dissolution of Lok sabha. The Lok sabha is dissolved if deep differences surface within the government or within the ruling party or the government loses a motion of no confidence.

9. Power of Appointment:
Though civil, military, judicial and diplomatic appointments are made by the President it is based on the recommendation of the Prime minister. The highest constitutional position such as the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC), Chief Vigilance Commissioner (CVC), Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), the Judges of the Supreme court and the High courts, the Chiefs of army, navy, and air force, the diplomats, etc., are appointed on the advice of the Prime minister.

10. Special Powers:
The foreign affairs, national security and economic matters Prime minister enjoys a special position. As the whole world watches and listens to his words with the attention he has a special place.

Question 38.
Describe the powers and functions of the Supreme court of India.
Answer:
The President of India appoints the judges of the Supreme court on the advice of the council of ministers in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. Article 124 which deals with the appointment of judges, makes it obligatory on the part of the President of India to consult the Chief Justice of India.

In appointing the Chief Justice of India, the President shall, besides the advice of the council of ministers, consult the judges of the Supreme Court and the High courts if he considers it necessary. But, neither the constitution nor the law provides for Chief Justice’s recommendation as to his successor. It is a practice sanctioned by convention.

Normally, the Chief Justice of India is appointed from among the senior-most judges of the Supreme Court. The following are the powers of the Supreme Court:

1. Original Jurisdiction:
Article 131 of the constitution deals with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is so exclusive that no court in India can take up cases falling under the original jurisdiction.

The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is purely federal in character. Matters relating to the problems and disputes arising between the union and the states or between the states are taken up by the Supreme Court. The disputes entertained under the original jurisdiction are:

• A dispute involving the Government of India Vs the state of Union of India.
• A dispute involving the Government of India plus one or more states Vs one or more states.
• A dispute involving one or more states on one side Vs one or more states on the other.

2. Appellate Jurisdiction:
The Supreme Court is the highest court in India. Under Appellate jurisdiction, the Supreme court only takes up such cases that come on appeal. It has no power to take up such cases, which is not asked to take up.The appellate jurisdiction can be studied under the following three heads:
a. Constitutional Cases:
The cases that come before the Supreme court are as follows:

The cases involving a question of law relating to the interpretation of the constitution or certification by the High court.
The Supreme Court can take up a case if the High court in its opinion feels that the case involves a substantial question of law, which should be decided by the Supreme court.

b. Civil Cases:
Originally Article 133 provided for an appeal against the high court order if it certified that the amount involved was less than Rs. 20,000 and the case is fit for appeal. But, the Law Commission found the logic unreasonable and as a result, the 30^th Amendment of 1972 did away with the ceiling of Rs. 20,000. The Supreme Court can take up the civil appeal, if the High court certifies that the case involves a substantial question law of general importance. The certification by the High court is essential in these cases.

c. Criminal Cases:
Article 134 provide for an appeal to the Supreme court against the judgment of the High Court under the following conditions:

If the High Court has reversed a decision of release of an accused and has given him a death sentence.
In a case where the High court has exercised the authority of a lower court and given a death sentence to the accused.
In any criminal case if the High court certifies that the case is fit for appeal in the Supreme Court.

3. Special Leave Jurisdiction:
Article 136 confers a special power in the hands of the Supreme Court to grant special leave. In hearing appeals the Supreme Court may grant Special Leave petition against any judgment or order made by any court or tribunal, except military tribunal, in a case. The decision is entirely left to the discretion of the Supreme Court. This power, however, is to be used only under exceptional circumstances like matters involving general public interest or in cases of grave injustice or cases in which no appeal is otherwise provided by law.

4. Advisory Jurisdiction:
Article 143 confers the power of advisory opinion. In order to break authoritative opinion, the President of India may seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on the matter which is, in his opinion, important and necessary such as disputes arising out of treaty of agreement. However, the advice of the Supreme Court is purely advisory in nature and it is up to the executive to accept it or not. The Supreme Court may decline to give advisory opinion if it finds unnecessary.

5. Power of Judicial Review:
The supremacy of the Supreme Court as the guardian of the constitution is emphasized by the power of judicial review. The Supreme court has the power of declaring a law made by the legislature or an executive action as ultra vires (intra vires) or null and void or unconstitutional if it is not in tune with the provisions of the constitution or violative of the fundamental law of the land. This acts as an effective, check on both the legislature and the executive as any decision made or action taken whimsically without regard to the constitution is declared invalid.

6. The Court of Records:
The proceedings and judgments of the Supreme Court are kept preserved to be made use of in future cases and judgments, whenever necessary by the lower courts. Those decisions are authoritative records on law whose validity cannot be questioned in any court. The courts of records also have the power to correct its own clerical errors.

7. The Contempt of court:
The Supreme Court enjoys the authority of imposing fines or imprisonment for violating the orders of the court (Article 129).

8. Self-correcting Court:
The Supreme Court has the power of correcting its own judgments. This is to ensure any loss or damage, physical, emotional or material that may be caused to any person seeking justice. To put it in legal terms, this is to ensure against ‘miscarriage of justice’.

9. Guardian of the Constitution:
The Supreme Court enjoys the privilege of protecting the constitution against violation of its provision either by the government or by the people, It is the responsibility of the Supreme Court to see that the laws of the constitution are respected and adhered to by all in India.

By acting as the watchtower of the constitution, it checks against the violation of laws. As guardian of the constitution, the Supreme Court also exercises the power of interpreting the contents of the constitution. Any matter relating to technical interpretation of details or definitions of terms in the constitution is the sole prerogative of the Supreme Court.

10. Enforcement of Fundamental Rights:
The Supreme Court is empowered by the constitution to act as the protector and guarantor of the fundamental rights. Under Article 32, the Supreme Court enjoys the power of issuing constitutional writs, also called as writ jurisdiction, for the enforcement of fundamental rights. The writs may be against the government or individuals. The writs are briefly explained as follows:
a. Habeas Corpus:
This literally means ‘to have a body’. It calls upon the authority, which arrests a person to produce in court, the person to set him free if he has done nothing wrong. It protects an individual against wrongful confinement.

b. Mandamus:
This literally means a command. It is a command issued by the court asking a person to perform his legal duty, which is of public nature.

c. Prohibition:
It is a writ issued by the Supreme court to an inferior court restraining it from exercising powers which are not invested in them.

d. Certiorari:
It is a writ by which a case is removed from a lower court, which does not enjoy jurisdiction to deal with it.

e. Quo warrato:
This writ is issued to prevent a person from illegally occupying a public office to which he is not entitled.

11. Defender of the Federation:
The constitution vests the power of settling the disputes and problems between the centre and the states. In order to prevent the conflict of power between the two, the Supreme Court interprets the laws, which help in maintaining the unity of the federation.

12. Miscellaneous functions:
The following are the miscellaneous functions of the Supreme court. The Supreme Court has the power of regulating the practice and procedure of the court. It appoints its own clerical establishment and exercises supervision over lower courts. The Supreme Court decides matters relating to the election of the President and Vice-president.

The Supreme Court if satisfied, may withdraw a case on its own or on appeal pending before one or more High courts on a matter involving substantial question of law of general importance (Article 139).The Supreme Court, if necessary, can transfer any case pending before any Highcourt to any other High court. The Supreme Court may also transfer a criminal case from one high court to the other.

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 39.
Write the powers and functions of Zilla panchayath.
Zilla panchayats are constituted in Karnataka at a district level to look after the development of the district. According to Karnataka Panchayat Raj Act 1993 the number of members will be decided on the basis of population of the district. For every 40,000 population is represented by one member. The members are directly elected by the voters for a period of 5 years.

Functions of Zilla panchayat:
Zilla panchayat is the nodal point of all developmental activities of the district. Following are the functions of Zilla panchayat:

• Supervision co-ordination, direction and integrating development work at the district level.
• Conservation and development of agriculture and horticulture.
• Land development and soil conservation.Building and conservation of irrigational works.
• Encourage animal husbandry, dairy development, and poultry.
• Encourage rural cottage industries.
• Construction of district roads, buildings, and other communication facilities.
• Support small-scale industries.
• Establishment and maintenance of Public distribution system (PDS)Electrification of rural areas.
• Encourage co-operative activities. Implementation of health and family welfare programmes.
• Establishment and maintenance of primary and high schools.
• Planning and supervision of poverty alleviation programmes.
• Encourage rural cottage industries. Take up any work as directed by the state government under Panchayat Raj Act.

OR

Write about live and achievements of your favourite national political leader.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi was great national leader. He was bom on 2^nd October 1869 at Porbandar of Kathiawar in Gujarat. Gandhiji was very much influenced by the dramas of Sathya harishchandra, Shravan Kumar. He also very much of influenced by the dramas Ramayana,

 

Students can Download 1st PUC Business Studies Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (Noth), Karnataka 1st PUC Business Studies Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus.

Karnataka 1st PUC Business Studies Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (North)

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 100

Instructions to candidates:

1. Write the serial number of questions properly as given in the question paper while answering
2. Write the correct and complete answers.

Section – A

I. Answer any ten of following questions in a word or a sentence each. While answering Multiple Choice Questions, write the serial number / alphabet of the correct choice and write the answer corresponding to it. Each question carries one mark: ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
Which of the following cannot he classified as an objective of business.
(a) Investment
(b) Productivity
(c) Innovation
(d) Profit earning
Answer:
(a) Investment.

Question 2.
Who is the Head of the Hindu undivided family business?
Answer:
Karta.

Question 3.
Give an example for statutory corporation.
Answer:
LIC, RBI.

Question 4.
Name any one type of Bank account.
Answer:
Savings Bank Account.

Question 5.
E-Commerce does not include.
(a) A business interactions with its suppliers
(b) A business interactions with its customers
(c) Interactions among the various departments within business
(d) Interactions among the geographically dispersed units of the business.
Answer:
(d) Interactions among the geographically dispersed units of the business.

Question 6.
How is land pollution caused?
Answer:
Dumping of toxic waste.

Question 7.
Minimum number of members of form private company is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 8.
For which purpose fixed capital needed?
Answer:
For purchase of fixed assets.

Question 9.
Expand: NABARD.
Answer:
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development.

Question 10.
What is wholesale trade?
Answer:
Buying and selling of goods in large scale called wholesale trade.

Question 11.
When two or more firms come together to create a new business entry that is legally separate and distinct from its parents, it is known as
(a) Contract manufacturing
(b) Franchising
(c) Joint ventures
(d) Licensing
Answer:
(c) Joint ventures.

Question 12.
Name any one document of Export business.
Answer:
Export invoice or shipping bill.

Section – B

II. Answer any ten of the following questions in two or three sentences each. Each question carries 2 marks. ( 10 × 2 = 20 )

Question 13.
What is business?
Answer:
Business is an economic activity involving the production and sale of goods and services undertaken with a motive of earning profit by satisfying human needs is society.

Question 14.
Who is active partner?
Answer:
The partners who actively participate in the day-to-day operations of the business are known as active or working partners.

Question 15.
State any two merits of Departmental Undertakings.
Answer:
Departmental undertakings have certain advantages which are as follows:

1. These undertakings facilitate the Parliament to exercise effective control over their operations.
2. These ensure a high degree of public accountability.
3. The revenue earned by the enterprise goes directly to the treasury and hence is a source of income for the government.
4. Where national security is concerned, this form is most suitable since it is under the direct control and supervision of the concerned Ministry.

Question 16.
Name the two facilities available under Postal services.
Answer:

1. Financial facilities.
2. Mail facilities.

Question 17.
Give the meaning of Outsourcing.
Answer:
Outsourcing is the process by which a company contracts another company to provide particular services.

Question 18.
What is Social Responsibilities of Business?
Answer:
Various activities which provides for the welfare of the society along with the earning of profit for the firm are termed as ‘Social Responsibility of Business’.

Question 19.
Give the meaning of Prospectus.
Answer:
According to Section 2 (70) of Companies Act 2013 a prospectus has been defined as “any document described or issued as a prospectus and includes any notice, circular, advertisement or other document, inviting deposits from the public or inviting offers from the public for the subscription or purchase of shares or debentures of a company or body corporate”.

Question 20.
Mention any two international Sources of business finance.
Answer:

1. Global depository receipts.
2. American depository receipts.

Question 21.
Write the meaning of village industries.
Answer:
Village industry has been defined as any industry located in a rural area which produces any goods, renders any service with or without the use of power arid in which the fixed capital investment per head or artisan or worker does not exceed Rs. 50,000.

Question 22.
State any two demerits of Departmental stores.
Answer:

1. Limited selection of goods
2. Lack of initiative.

Question 23.
What is international business?
Answer:
According to Michael R. Czinkota, “International business consists of transactions that are devised and carried out across national borders to satisfy the objectives of the individuals, companies and organisations. These transactions take on various forms which are often interrelated”.

Question 24.
Write any two objectives of W.T.O.

1. To ensure reduction of tariffs and other trade barriers imposed by different countries.
2. To facilitate the optimal use of the world’s resources for sustainable development.

Section – C

III. Answer any seven of the following questions in 10-12 sentences. Each question carries 4 marks. ( 7 × 4 = 28 )

Question 25.
What are the various types of Industries? Explain with example.
Answer:
The various types of industries are:

1. Primary industries: Primary industries refer to industries which are concerned with the production of goods mainly with the help of nature. Mining, agriculture, forestry, fishing, etc. are example for primary industries. Primary industries can be classified as:

(a) Genetic industries: Genetic industries refer to those activities which are undertaken for reproducing or multiplying plants and animals with the object of making profit from their sales. Example: Nurseries raising seedlings and plants, cattle breeding, poultry farming, etc.

(b) Extractive industries: Extractive industries refer to those activities which are concerned with the extraction or production of wealth from soil, air, water or from beneath the surface of the earth. Example: Agriculture, mining, fishing, forestry, hunting, fruit gathering, etc.

2. Secondary industries: Secondary industries refer to industries where human labour plays a more important role than nature. Secondary industries can be classified into:

(a) Manufacturing industries: Manufacturing industries refer to activities concerned with the conversion of raw materials or semi-finished goods into finished goods.
Example: Conversion of raw cotton into cotton textiles; conversion of raw jute into jute products; production of sugar from sugarcane, etc. Manufacturing industries may be sub-divided into four types. They are:

(i) Analytical industries: Analytical industries refer to those manufacturing industries which produce many types of product by analysing, i.e. separating, the same basic raw materials into different products. Example: In oil refining, the same crude oil is analysed or separated into different products like petrol, diesel oil, kerosene, lubricating oil, etc.

(ii) Synthetic industries: Synthetic industries refer to all those manufacturing industries where various materials are combined together in the manufacturing process to manufacture a new product. Example: Cement industry is a synthetic industry, in the sense that cement is produced by combining many materials, such as gypsum, coal, etc.

(iii) Processing industries: Processing industries refer to those manufacturing industries where different component processed through Trent processes into finished product. Paper industry, textile industry, etc. are the example processing industries.

(iv) Assembling industries: Assembling industries refer to those manufacturing industries where different component parts already manufactured are assembled into final products. Automobile industry is an example for assembling industries.

(b) Construction industries: Construction industries refer to those activities which are concerned with the creation of infrastructure necessary for economic development. In other words, they refer to those which are concerned with the construction of buildings, roads, bridges, railway lines, dams canals, etc.

3. Tertiary industries: Tertiary industries refer to industries which provide support services to primary and secondary industries and also to activities relating to trade. These days, services also are regarded as industries, and are called tertiary industries. These industries are regarded as part of commerce, i.e. as auxiliaries to trade.

Question 26.
State any four features of government companies.
Answer:

1. Formation: These companies are formed by the Indian Companies Act, 1956 or 2013.
2. Ownership: The ownership of these companies is in the hands of the government. In total capital major portion of the capital not less than 51% is contributed by government.
3. Separate entity: They have separate legal entity, apart from the government.
4. Government audit: These companies are exempted from the accounting and audit rules and procedures. An auditor is appointed by the central government.
5. Financial autonomy: The government company obtains its funds from government shareholdings and other private shareholders. It is also permitted to raise funds from the capital market.

Question 27.
Briefly explain any four functions of warehousing.
Answer:
Usually, goods are not sold or consumed immediately after production. They are held in stock to be available as and when required. Special arrangement must be made for storage of goods to prevent loss or damage. Warehousing helps business firms to overcome the problem of storage and facilitates the availability of goods when needed.

Functions of Warehousing :
1. Consolidation: The warehouse receives and consolidates materials/goods from different production plants and dispatches the same to a particular customer on a single transportation shipment.

2. Break the Bulk: The warehouse divides the bulk quantity of goods received from the production plants into smaller quantities and then transported according to the requirements of clients to their places of business.

3. Stock Piling Goods or Raw Materials which are not required immediately for sale or manufacturing are stored in warehouses to be made available to business depending on customers demand. This type of warehouse is also known as the storehouse of surplus goods.

4. Value Added Services: Provision of value added services such as in transit mixing, packaging and labeling is also a function of modem warehousing.

5. Price Stabilization: Warehousing performs the function of stabilizing prices by adjusting the supply of goods according to demand. Financing warehouse owners provide loans to the owners on security of goods and further supply goods on credit terms to customers. The warehouse keepers issue a receipt when goods are kept in warehouse. This receipt can be used as security to get loans from banks and owners. In this way, it also helps in financing.

Question 28.
Explain any four benefits of e-Business.
Answer: The benefits or importance are:

1. Ease formation and lower investment requirements: It is relatively easy to start because legal formalities and capital is less when compared to traditional business.
2. Convenience: Electronic commerce enables customers to shop or do other transactions 24 hours a day, all year round, from almost any location.
3. Global Reach/Access: Internet is truly without boundaries. On the one hand, it allows the seller an access to the global market; on the other hand, it affords to the buyer a freedom to choose products from almost any part of the world.
4. Cost Effective: E-commerce is proved to be highly cost effective for business concerns as it cuts down the cost of marketing, processing, inventory management, customer care, etc. It also reduces the burden of infrastructure required for conducting business.

Question 29.
Explain the social responsibilities of business towards.
(a) Share holders
(b) Consumers.
Answer:
Social responsibility of business towards shareholders:

• A fair rate of dividend should be regularly paid by the business enterprises to their owners.
• Management techniques should be effective and efficient so that the net present value of the business is maximized.
• Owners should be given the right to participate in the affairs of the enterprise.
• The tendency towards the growth of ‘Oligarchic management’ should he arrested.
• The owners should be given the full information regarding the working of the company. In other words, accurate and comprehensive reports have to be supplied.
• Financial information has to be disclosed and doubts have to be clarified.
• Chairman and directors of the company should be easily accessible to the owner.

Social responsibility of business towards consumer:

• Ensuring availability of products in the right quantity, at the right place and at the right time.
• Maintaining the quality of the goods, increasing the quality to maximum extent so as to complete with any international product.
• Charging reasonable prices to its products.
• Correct weights and measures have to be used.
• The company must provide after sale service for maintenance of goods.
• The business firms should avoid restrictive trade practices and see that full justice is done to the amount that is spent by a consumer.
• Constant investigation and discovery of growing wants of consumers, giving importance for research and development of new products that satisfy their wants.
• Taking all such measures which promote consumer satisfaction, interest and welfare.

Question 30.
Explain briefly any four clauses of Memorandum of Association.
Answer:
1. Name Clause: It contains the name by which the company will be established. The approval of the proposed name is taken in advance from the Registrar of the companies.

2. Objects Clause: It contains detailed description of the objects and rights of the company, for which it is being established. A company can undertake only those activities which are mentioned in the objects clause of its memorandum.

3. Capital Clause: It contains the proposed authorized capital of the company. It gives the classification of the authorized capital into various types of shares, (like equity and preference shares) with their numbers and nominal value. A company is not allowed to raise more capital than the amount mentioned as its authorized capital. However, the company is permitted to alter this clause as per the guidelines prescribed by the Companies Act.

4. Liability Clause: It contains financial limit up to which the shareholders are liable to pay off to the outsiders on the event of the company being dissolved or closed down.

Question 31.
Explain any four types of debentures.
Answer:
1. Secured and Unsecured: Secured debentures are such which create a charge on the assets of the company, thereby mortgaging the assets of the company, in the assets of the company.

2. Registered and Bearer: Registered debentures are those which are duly recorded in the register of debenture holders maintained by the company. These can be transferred only through a regular instrument of transfer. In contrast, the debentures which are transferable by mere deliver are called bearer debentures.

3. Convertible and non-convertible: Convertible debentures are those debentures that can be converted into equity shares after the expiry of a specified period. On the other hand, non-convertible debentures are those such cannot be converted into equity shares.

4. First and second: Debentures that are repaid before other debentures are could are known as first debentures. The second debentures are those which are paid after the first debenture have been paid back

Question 32.
Write any four differences between Equity shares and Preference shares.
Answer:

Question 33.
Briefly explain the common incentives offered to attract small industries in rural areas by the government.
Answer:
Some of the common incentives provided by the Government for industries in backward and hills areas are as follows:

• Land: Every state offers developed plots for setting up of industries. The terms and conditions may Some states don’t charge rent in the initial years, while some allow payment in installments.
• Power: It is supplied at a concessional rate of 50%, while some states exempt such units from payment in the initial years.
• Water: It is supplied on no-profit, no-loss basis or with 50% concession or exemption from water charges for a period of 5 years. Sales Tax: In all union territories, industries are exempted from sales tax, while some states extend exemption for 5 years period.
• Octroi: Most states have abolished octroi.
• Raw materials: Units located in backward areas get preferential treatment in the matter of allotment of scarce raw materials like cement, iron and steel, etc.
• Finance: Subsidy of 10-15% is given for building capital assets. Loans are also offered at concessional rates.
• Industrial estates: Some states encourage setting up of industrial estates in backward areas.
• Tax holiday: Exemption from paying taxes for 5 or 10 years is given to industries established in backward, hilly and tribal areas.

Question 34.
Briefly explain the limitations of super markets.
Answer:
Limitations:

• No credit: Super markets sell their products on cash basis only. No credit facilities are made available to the buyers. This restricts the purchasing power of buyers from such markets.
• No personal attention: Super markets work on the principle of self-service. The customers, therefore, don’t get any personal attention. As a result, such commodities that require personal attention by sales people cannot be handled effectively in super markets.
• Mishandling of goods: Some customers handle the goods kept in the shelf carelessly. This may raise costs in super markets.
• High overhead expenses: Super market incurs high overhead expenses. As a result these have not been able to create low price appeal among the customers.
• Huge capital requirement: Establishing and running a super market requires huge investment. The turnover of a store should be high so that the overheads are kept under reasonable level. This can be possible in bigger towns but not in small towns.

Section – D

IV. Answer any four of the following questions in 20-25 sentences each. Each question carries 8 marks. ( 4 × 8 = 32 )

Question 35.
Explain the merits and demerits of sole proprietorship form of business organisation.
Answer:
Merits:

• Ease of formation and closure: Like sole proprietorship, the partnership business can be formed easily without any legal formalities.
• More funds: In a partnership, the capital is contributed by a number of partners. This makes it possible to raise larger amount of funds as compared to a sole proprietor and undertake additional operations when needed.
• Sharing risks: The risks involved in running a partnership firm are shared by all the partners. This reduces the anxiety, burden and stress on individual partners.
• Secrecy: A partnership firm is not legally required to publish its accounts and submit its reports. Hence it is able to maintain confidentiality of information relating to its operations.

Demerits:

• Limited capital: Since the total number of partners cannot exceed 20, the capital to be raised is always limited. It may not be possible to start a very large business in partnership form.
• Lack of continuity of business: A partnership firm comes to an end in the event of death, lunacy or retirement of any partner. Even otherwise, it can discontinue its business at the partners. At any time, they may take a decision to end their relationship.
• Lack of public confidence: There is no governmental supervision over the affairs of the business of a partnership and publishing accounts is also not necessary. Hence, public may not have full confidence in them.
• Unlimited liability: The liability of each partner is not limited to the amount invested but his private property is also liable to pay the business obligations.

Question 36.
Explain the types of Co-operative societies.
Answer:
Types of co-operative society:

1. Consumer’s cooperative societies:

• The consumer cooperative societies are formed to protect the interests of consumers.
• The members comprise of consumers desirous of obtaining good quality products at reasonable prices.
• The society aims at eliminating middlemen to achieve economy in operations.
• It purchases goods in bulk directly from the wholesalers and sells goods to the members directly.
• Profits, if any, are distributed on the basis of either their capital contributions to the society or purchases made by individual members.

2. Producer’s cooperative societies:

• These societies are set up to protect the interest of small producers.
• The members comprise of producers desirous of procuring inputs for production of goods to meet the demand of consumers.
• The society aims to fight against the big capitalists and enhance the bargaining power of the small producers.
• It supplies raw materials, equipment and other inputs to the members and also buys their output for sale.
• Profits among the members are generally distributed on the basis of their contributions to the total pool of goods produced or sold by the society.

3. Marketing cooperative societies:

• Such societies are established to help small process in selling their products.
• The members consist of producers who wish to obtain reasonable prices for their output.
• The society aims to eliminate middlemen and improve competitive position of its members by securing a favorable market for the products.
• It pools the output of individual members and performs marketing functions like transportation, warehousing, packaging, etc.
• Profits are distributed according to each member’s contribution to the pool of output.

4. Farmer’s cooperative societies:

• These societies are established to protect the interests of farmers by providing better inputs at a reasonable cost.
• The members comprise of farmers who wish to jointly take up farming activities.
• The aim is to gain the benefits of large scale farming and increase the productivity.
• Such societies provide better quality seeds, fertilizers, machinery and other modern techniques.

5. Credit cooperative societies:

• Credit cooperative societies are established for providing easy credit on reasonable terms to the members.
• The members comprise of persons who seek financial help in the form of loans.
• The aim of such societies is to protect the members from the exploitation of lenders who charge high rates of interest on loans.
• Such societies provide loans to members out of the amounts collected as capital and deposits from the members and charge low rates of interest.

6. Cooperative housing societies:

• To help people with limited income to construct houses at reasonable costs.
• The members of these societies consist procuring residential accommodation at lower costs.
• The aim is to solve the housing problems of the members by constructing houses and giving the option of paying in installments.
• These societies construct flats or provide plots to members on which the members themselves can construct the houses as per their choice.

Question 37.
Explain the principles of insurance.
Answer:
1. Principle of utmost good faith: According to this principle, the insurance contract must be signed by both parties (i.e. insurer and insured) in an absolute good faith or belief or trust. The person getting insured must willingly disclose and surrender to the insurer his complete true information regarding the subject matter of insurance.

Example: If any person has taken a life insurance policy by hiding the fact that he is a cancer patient and later on if he dies because of cancer then Insurance Company can refuse to pay the compensation as the fact was hidden by the insured.

2. Principle of insurable interest: As per this principle, the insured must have insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance. It means insured should gain by the existence or safety and lose by the destruction of the subject matter of insurance.

Example: If a person has taken the loan against the security of a factory premises then the lender can take fire insurance policy of that factory without being the owner of the factory because he has financial interest in the factory premises.

3. Principle of indemnity: According to the principle of indemnity, an insurance contract is signed only for getting protection against unpredicted financial losses arising due to future uncertainties. Insurance contract is not made for making profit else its sole purpose is to give compensation in case of any damage or loss.

Example: A person insured a car for 5 lakhs against damage or an accident case. Due to accident he suffered a loss of 3 lakhs. then the insurance company will compensate him 3 lakhs not only the policy amount i.e., 5 lakhs as the purpose behind it is to compensate not to make profit.

4. Principle of contribution: According to this principle, the insured can claim the compensation only to the extent of actual loss either from all insurers in a proportion or from any one insurer.

Example: A person gets his house insured against fire for 50,000 with insurer A and for 25,000 with insurer B. A loss of 37,500 occurred. Then A is liable to pay 25,000 and B is liable to pay 12,500.

5. Principle of subrogation: According to the principle of subrogation, when the insured is compensated for the losses due to damage to his insured property, then the ownership right of such property shifts to the insurer.

Example: If a person receives Rs. 1 lakh for his or her damaged stock, then the ownership of the stock will be transferred to the insurance company and the person will hold no control over the stock.

6. Principle of mitigation of loss: According to the Principle of mitigation of loss, insured must always try his level best to minimize the loss of his insured property, in case of uncertain events like a fire outbreak or blast, etc. The insured must not neglect and behave irresponsibly during such events just because the property is insured.

Example: If a person has insured his house against fire, then, in case of fire, he or she should take all possible measures to minimise the damage to the property exactly in the manner he or she would have done in absence of the insurance,

7. Principle of Causa Proxima: Principle of Causa Proxrna (a Latin phrase), or in simple English words, the Principle of Proximate (i.e. Nearest) Cause, means when a loss is caused by more than one causes, the proximate or the nearest cause should be taken into consideration to decide the liability of the insurer.

Example: If an individual suffers a loss in A fire accent, then this should already he a part of the contract in order for this person to claim the insurance amount.

Question 38.
Discuss the factor that affect while making the decision for the choice of an appropriate source of funds by a business organisation.
Answer:
1. Cost: There are two types of costs, the cost of procurement of funds and cost of utilizing the funds. Both these costs should be taken into account while deciding about the source of funds that will be used by an organisation.

2. Financial strength and stability of operations: The financial strength of a business is also a key determinant. In the choice of source of funds business should be in a sound financial position so as to be able to repay the principal amount and interest on the borrowed amount.

3. Form of organisation and legal status: The form of business organisation and status influences the choice of a source for raising money.

4. Purpose and time period: Business should plan according to the time period for which the funds are required. A short-term need for example can be met through borrowing funds at low rate of interest through trade credit, commercial paper, etc. For long term finance, sources such as issue of shares and debentures are more appropriate.

5. Risk profile: Business should evaluate each of the sources of finance in terms of the risk involved. For example, there is a least risk in equity as the share capital has to be repaid only at the time of winding up and dividends need not be paid if no profits are available.

6. Control: A particular source of fund may affect the control and power of the owners on the management of a firm. Issue of equity shares may mean dilution of the control.

7. Effect on credit worthiness: The dependence of business on certain sources may affect its credit worthiness in the market.

8. Flexibility and ease: Another aspect affecting the choice of a source of finance is the flexibility and ease of obtaining funds. Restrictive provisions, detailed investigation and documentation in case of borrowings from banks and financial institutions.

9. Tax benefits: Various sources may also be weighed ¡n terms of their tax benefits. For example. while the dividend on preference shares is not tax deductible, interest paid on debentures and loan is tax deductible and may, therefore, be preferred by organisations seeking tax advantage.

Question 39.
Explain the services of retailers to wholesalers and consumers.
Answer:
Services of retailers towards customer are:

• Regular availability of products: The most important service of a retailer to consumer is to maintain regular availability of various products produced by different manufacturers.
• New products information: By arranging for effective display of products and through their personal selling efforts, retailers provide important information about the arrival, special features, etc. of new products to the customers.
• Convenience in buying: Retailers generally buy goods in large quantities and sell these in small quantities, according to the requirements of their customers.
• Wide selection: Retailers generally keep stock of a variety of products of different manufacturers. This enables the consumers to make their choice out of a wide selection of goods.

Question 40.
What are the steps to be followed in import procedure?
Answer:
1. Trade enquiry: The importing firm approaches the export firms with the help of trade enquiry they collecting information about their export prices and terms of exports. After receiving a trade enquiry, the exporter will prepare a quotation called proforma invoice.

2. Procurement of import licence: There are certain goods that can be imported freely, while others need licensing. The importer needs to consult the Export Import (EXIM) policy in force to know whether the goods that he or she wants to import are subject to import licensing.

3. Obtaining foreign exchange: Since the supplier in the context of an import transaction resides in a foreign country, he/she demands payment in a foreign currency. Payment in foreign currency involves exchange of Indian currency into foreign currency.

4. Placing order or indent: After obtaining the import licence, the importer places an import order or indent with the exporter for supply of the specified products. The import order contains information about the price, quantity size, grade and quality of goods ordered and the instructions relating to packing, shipping, ports of shipment and destination etc.

5. Arranging for finance: The importer should make arrangements in advance to pay to the exporter on arrival of goods at the port. Advanced planning for financing imports is necessary so as to avoid huge demur rages (i.e.. penalties) on the imported goods lying uncleared at the port for want of payments.

6. Obtaining letter of credit: If the payment terms agreed between the importer and the overseas supplier is a letter of credit. then the importer should obtain the letter of credit from its bank and forward it to the overseas supplier.

7. Receipt of shipment advice: After loading the goods on the vessel, the overseas supplier dispatches the shipment advice to the importer. A shipment advice contains information about the shipment of goods.

8. Retirement of import documents: Having shipped the goods, the overseas supplier prepares a set of necessary documents as per the terms of contract and letter of credit

Section – E

V. Answer any two of the following questions: ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 41.
As the owner of a business unit what risks you may face in running it?
Answer:
The risk faced by owner while running a business unit are:

• Market information risk
• Consumer taste and preferences risk
• Government policy risk
• Capital risk
• Operational risk.

Question 42.
As a businessman having concern for environment protection, suggest any five steps which can be taken by you for environment protection.
Answer:
Five measures to control environment pollution are:

• Definite commitment by top management of enterprise to create, maintain and develop work culture for environmental protection and pollution prevention.
• Complying with laws and regulations enacted by the government for prevention of pollution.
• Participation in government programmes relating to management of hazardous substance, plantation of trees and checking deforestation.
• Ensuring that commitment to environmental protection is shared throughout the enterprise by all divisions and employees.
• Arranging educational workshop and training materials to share technical information and experience with suppliers, dealers and customers to get them actively involved in pollution control programmes.

Question 43.
As an aspirant of doing international business what different modes of entry into international business do you find?
Answer:
Different modes of entry into international business are:

• Export and import
• Joint venture
• Licensing and franchising
• Contract manufacturing
• Wholly owned subsidiaries.

Students can Download 1st PUC Business Studies Model Question Paper 3 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Business Studies Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus.

Karnataka 1st PUC Business Studies Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 100

Instructions to candidates:

1. Write the serial number of questions properly as given in the question paper while answering
2. Write the correct and complete answers.

Section – A

I. Answer any TEN of following questions in a word or a sentence each. While answering Multiple Choice Questions, write the serial number/alphabet of the correct choice and write the answer corresponding to it. Each question carries one mark. ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
Given an example for processing industry.
Answer:

• Sugar industry.
• Paper industry.

Question 2.
The minimum number of partners in Partnership firm
(a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 2 (d) No limit
Answer:
(c) 2

Question 3.
State any one feature of statutory corporation.
Answer:
These corporation is managed by the Board of Directors.

Question 4.
Mention any one type of insurance.
Answer:
Life Insurance.

Question 5.
Expand ATM.
Answer:
Automated Teller Machine.

Question 6.
Social responsibility is ___________.
(a) Same as legal responsibility
(b) Broader than legal responsibility
(c) Narrower than legal responsibility
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Narrower than legal responsibility.

Question 7.
Which type of company issues prospectus?
Answer:
Public Company.

Question 8.
State any one type of share.
Answer:
Equity Share.

Question 9.
In which year MSMED act was enacted?
Answer:
June 16, 2006 the MSMED act was enacted.

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a fixed shop retailer?
(a) General stores
(b) Chain stores
(c) Mail order houses
(d) Super markets
Answer:
(a) General stores.

Question 11.
Given an example of business organisation that has entered into international business through franchising system.
Answer:
General Motors.

Question 12.
Which of the following documents is not required in export procedure?
(a) Certificate of origin
(b) Certificate of inspection
(c) Mate’s receipts
(d) Bill of entry
Answer:
(d) Bill of entry.

Section – B

II. Answer any ten of the following questions in two or three sentences each. Each question carries 2 marks: ( 10 × 2 = 20 )

Question 13.
State any two characteristics of business.
Answer:
Characteristics of business are :

1. An economic activity.
2. Earning profit.

Question 14.
Give the meaning of co-operative societies.
Answer:
Co-operative organisation is a society which its objectives for the promotion of economic interest of its members in accordance with co-operative principles.

Question 15.
State any two limitations for Departmental Undertaking.
Answer;

1. Departmental undertakings fails to providing with limited resources.
2. Not allowed to take independent decision.

Question 16.
Give the meaning of outsourcing.
Answer:
Outsourcing is the process by which a company contracts another company to provide particular services.

Question 17.
What do you mean by Telecom Services?
Answer:
It is a service provided by a tele communications provider or a specified set of user information transfer capabilities provided to a group of users.

Question 18.
State any two arguments against social responsibility.
Answer:

1. Burden on consumers.
2. Lack of social skills.

Question 19.
State any two steps in the formation of a company.
Answer:

1. Memorandum of Association.
2. Articles of Association.

Question 20.
Who are the parties to a Lease Contracts?
Answer:
Lessor and Lessee.

Question 21.
State any two features of Cottage Industries.
Answer:

1. These are organised by individuals with private resources.
2. Normally use family labour.

Question 22.
State any two features of Itinerant Retailers.
Answer:

1. They are small traders operating with limited resources.
2. They normally deal in consumer products of daily use such as fruits and vegetables etc.

Question 23.
State any two benefits of International business to nations.
Answer:

1. Earning of foreign exchange.
2. lncreased standard of living.

Question 24.
Name any two commodity Boards established by Government of India.
Answer:

1. Coffee Board.
2. Rubber Board.

Section – C

III. Answer any seven of the following questions in 10-12 sentences. Each question carries 4 marks. ( 7 × 4 = 28 )

Question 25.
Explain briefly the different types of manufacturing industries.
Answer:
The various types of industries are:

1. Primary industries: Primary industries refer to industries which are concerned with the production of goods mainly with the help of nature. Mining, agriculture, forestry, fishing, etc. are example for primary industries. Primary industries can be classified as:

(a) Genetic industries: Genetic industries refer to those activities which are undertaken for reproducing or multiplying plants and animals with the object of making profit from their sales. Example: Nurseries raising seedlings and plants, cattle breeding, poultry farming, etc.

(b) Extractive industries: Extractive industries refer to those activities which are concerned with the extraction or production of wealth from soil, air, water or from beneath the surface of the earth. Example: Agriculture, mining, fishing, forestry, hunting, fruit gathering, etc.

2. Secondary industries: Secondary industries refer to industries where human labour plays a more important role than nature. Secondary industries can be classified into:

(a) Manufacturing industries: Manufacturing industries refer to activities concerned with the conversion of raw materials or semi-finished goods into finished goods.
Example: Conversion of raw cotton into cotton textiles; conversion of raw jute into jute products; production of sugar from sugarcane, etc. Manufacturing industries may be sub-divided into four types. They are:

(i) Analytical industries: Analytical industries refer to those manufacturing industries which produce many types of product by analysing, i.e. separating, the same basic raw materials into different products. Example: In oil refining, the same crude oil is analysed or separated into different products like petrol, diesel oil, kerosene, lubricating oil, etc.

(ii) Synthetic industries: Synthetic industries refer to all those manufacturing industries where various materials are combined together in the manufacturing process to manufacture a new product. Example: Cement industry is a synthetic industry, in the sense that cement is produced by combining many materials, such as gypsum, coal, etc.

(iii) Processing industries: Processing industries refer to those manufacturing industries where different component processed through Trent processes into finished product. Paper industry, textile industry, etc. are the example processing industries.

(iv) Assembling industries: Assembling industries refer to those manufacturing industries where different component parts already manufactured are assembled into final products. Automobile industry is an example for assembling industries.

(b) Construction industries: Construction industries refer to those activities which are concerned with the creation of infrastructure necessary for economic development. In other words, they refer to those which are concerned with the construction of buildings, roads, bridges, railway lines, dams canals, etc.

Tertiary industries: Tertiary industries refer to industries which provide support services to primary and secondary industries and also to activities relating to trade. These days, services also are regarded as industries, and are called tertiary industries. These industries are regarded as part of commerce, i.e. as auxiliaries to trade.

Question 26.
Name any two merits and two limitations of departmental undertakings.
Answer:
Departmental undertakings have certain advantages which are as follows:

1. These undertakings facilitate the Parliament to exercise effective control over their operations.
2. These ensure a high degree of public accountability.

The limitations of departmental undertaking are:

1. Departmental undertakings fail to provide flexibility, which is essential for the smooth operation of business.
2. The employees or heads of departments of such undertakings are not allowed to take independent decisions, without the approval of the ministry concerned. This leads to delays, in matters where prompt decisions are required.

Question 27.
What are the benefits of e-banking to customer?
Answer:

• E-banking provides 24 hours, 365 days a year services to the customer of the bank.
• It offers convenience to customers as they are not required to go to the bank’s premises.
• The customer can obtain funds at anytime from ATM machines.
• The customer can easily transfer the funds from one place to another place electronically.

Question 28.
Explain any four limitation of e-business.
Answer:
The limitation of e-business are:

1. Inability to Experience the Product before Purchase: There are many products that consumers want to touch, feel, hear, taste and smell before they buy. E-commerce takes away that luxury.
2. Less Security: The biggest obstacle in the growth of e-commerce is the issue of security. Internet is not a secured medium of communication. There are tools or options available to hackers whereby they cannot only monitor but also control any data communicated over the internet.
3. Dependent on Internet: E-business is dependent on internet. Mechanical failures in system can cause unpredictable effects on the total processes.
4. E-commerce Delays Goods: E-business takes more time to deliver the goods into consumer hands when compared to traditional business.

Question 29.
Explain the social responsibility of business towards
(a) Shareholders
(b) Consumer
Answer:
Social responsibility of business towards shareholders:

• A fair rate of dividend should be regularly paid by the business enterprises to their owners.
• Management techniques should be effective and efficient so that the net present value of the business is maximized.
• Owners should be given the right to participate in the affairs of the enterprise.
• The tendency towards the growth of ‘Oligarchic management’ should be arrested.
• The owners should be given the full information regarding the working of the company. In other words, accurate and comprehensive reports have to be supplied.
• Financial information has to be disclosed and doubts have to be clarified.
• Chairman and directors of the company should be easily accessible to the owner.

Social responsibility of business towards consumer:

• Ensuring availability of products in the right quantity, at the right place and at the right time.
• Maintaining the quality of the goods, increasing the quality to maximum extent so as to compete with any international product.
• Charging reasonable prices to its products.
• Correct weights and measures have to be used.
• The company must provide after sale service for maintenance of goods.
• The business firms should avoid restrictive trade practices and see that full justice is done to the amount that is spent by a consumer.
• Constant investigation and discovery of growing wants of consumers, giving importance for research and development of new products that satisfy their wants.
• Taking all such measures which promote consumer satisfaction, interest and welfare.

Question 30.
Explain briefly any 4 clause of memorandum of association.
Answer:
1. Name Clause: It contains the name by which the company will be established. The approval of the proposed name is taken in advance from the Registrar of the companies.

2. Objects Clause: it contains detailed description of the objects and rights of the company, for which it is being established.

3. Capital Clause: It contains the proposed authorized capital of the company. It gives the classification of the authorized capital into various types of shares, (like equity and preference shares) with their numbers and nominal value. A company is not allowed to raise more capital than the amount mentioned as its authorized capital. However, the company is permitted to alter this clause as per the guidelines prescribed by the Companies Act.

4. Liability Clause: It contains financial limit up to which the shareholders are liable to pay off to the outsiders on the event of the company being dissolved or closed down.

Question 31.
Explain the financial needs of business.
Answer:
An activity of business concerned with the acquisition and conservation of capital fund in meeting the financial needs and overall objective of the business.

1. To purchase fixed assets: Every type of business needs some fixed assets like land and building, furniture, machinery, etc. A large amount of money is required for purchase of these assets.
2. To meet day-to-day expenses: After establishment of a business, funds are needed to carry out day-to-day operations.
3. To fund business growth: Growth of business may include expansion of existing line of business as well as adding new lines. To finance such growth, one needs more funds.
4. To bridge the time gap between production and sales: The amount spent on production is realized only when sales are made. Normally, there is a time gap between production and sales and also between sales and realization of cash. Hence during this interval, expenses continue to be incurred, for which funds are required.
5. To meet contingencies: Funds are always required to meet the ups and downs of business and for some unforeseen problems.

Question 32.
Write a short note on
(a) Retained earnings
(b) Trade credit
Answer:
(a) Retained Earnings: A company generally does not distribute all its earnings amongst the shareholders as dividends but a portion of the net earnings may be retained in the business for use in the future this is known as retained earnings. It is a source of internal financing or self financing or ‘ploughing back of profits’. The profit available for ploughing back in an organisation depends on many factors like net profits, dividend policy and age of the organisation.

(b) Trade Credit: It is the credit extended by one trader to another for the purchase of goods and services. Trade credit facilitates the purchase of supplies without immediate payment. Trade credit is commonly used by business organisations as a source of short-term financing. It is granted to those customers who have reasonable amount of financial standing and goodwill.

The volume and period of credit extended depends on factors such as reputation of the purchasing firm, financial position of the seller, volume of purchases, past record of payment and degree of competition in the market. Terms of trade credit may vary from one industry to another and from one person to another. A firm may also offer different credit terms to different customers.

Question 33.
Explain briefly the common incentives offered to attract small industries in rural areas by the government.
Answer:
The contribution of small scale industries is remarkable. Thus, government has provided the following institutional support to solve the problem of finance and marketing in the small scale sector:

1. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural development (NABARD): NABARD was setup in 1982, to promote integrated rural development. Apart from agriculture, it supports small industries, cottage and village industries, and rural artisans. It provides credit and offers counselling and consultancy services and organizes training and development programmes for rural entrepreneurs.

2. The Rural Small Business Development Centre (RSDC): It was set up by the world association for small and medium enterprises and sponsored by NABARD. It works for the benefit of socially and economically disadvantaged individuals and groups. It aims at providing management and technical support to current and prospective micro and small entrepreneurs in rural areas.

3. National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC): This was setup in 1955 with a view to promote aid and foster the growth of small business units in the country. Functions of NSIC include:

• Supply of machines on easy hire-purchase terms.
• Procure, supply and distribute raw materials.
• Export the products of small business units and develop export-worthiness.
• Mentoring and advisory services.
• Serve as technology business incubators.
• Creating awareness on technological up gradation.
• Developing software technology parks and technology transfer centres.

4. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI): SIDBI was set up as an apex bank to provide direct / indirect financial assistance under different schemes, to meet credit needs of small business organizations and to coordinate the functions of other institutions in similar activities.

Question 34.
Explain any four services of wholesalers to retailers.
Answer:
Services of wholesale sellers to retailers are:
1. Availability of goods: Retailers have to maintain adequate stock of varied commodities so that they can offer variety to their customers. The wholesalers make the products of various manufacturers readily available to the retailers. This relieves the retailers of the work of collecting goods from several producers.

2. Marketing support: The wholesalers perform various marketing functions and provide support to the retailers. They undertake advertisements and other sales promotional activities to induce customers to purchase the goods.

3. Grant of credit: The wholesalers generally extend credit facilities to their regular customers. This enables the retailers to manage their business with relatively small amount of working capital.

4. Specialised knowledge: The wholesalers specialise in one line of products and know the pulse of the market. They pass on the benefit of their specialised knowledge to the retailers. They inform the retailers about the new products. their uses, quality, prices, etc.

Section – D

IV. Answer any four of the following questions in 20-25 sentences each. Each question carries 8 marks: ( 4 × 8 = 32 )

Question 35.
Explain any four merits and demerits of Sole Proprietorship firm of business.
Answer:
Merits:

1. Ease of formation and closure: Like sole proprietorship, the partnership business can be formed easily without any legal formalities.
2. More funds: In a partnership, the capital is contributed by a number of partners. This makes it possible to raise larger amount of funds as compared to a sole proprietor and undertake additional operations when needed.
3. Sharing risks: The risks involved in running a partnership firm are shared by all the partners. This reduces the anxiety, burden and stress on individual partners.
4. Secrecy: A partnership firm is not legally required to publish its accounts and submit its reports. Hence it is able to maintain confidentiality of information relating to its operations.

Demerits:

1. Limited capital: Since the total number of partners cannot exceed 20, the capital to be raised is always limited. It may not be possible to start a very large business in partnership form.
2. Lack of continuity of business: A partnership firm concerns to an end in the event of death, lunacy or retirement of any partner. Even otherwise, it can discontinue its business at the partners. At any time, they may take a decision to end their relationship.
3. Lack of public confidence: There is no governmental supervision over the affairs of the business of a partnership and publishing accounts is also not necessary. Hence, public may not have full confidence in them.
4. Unlimited liability: The liability of each partner is not limited to the amount invested but his private property is also liable to pay the business obligations.

Question 36.
Explain the features of Joint Stock Company.
Answer:
1. Artificial person: Just like an individual, who takes birth, grows, enters into relationships and dies, a joint stock company takes birth, grows, enters into relationships and dies. However, it is called an artificial person as its birth, existence and death are regulated by law and it does not possess physical attributes like that of a normal person.

2. Legal formation: No single individual or a group of individuals can start a business and call it a joint stock company. A joint stock company comes into existence only when it has been registered after completion of all formalities required by the Indian Companies Act, 2013.

3. Separate legal entity: Being an artificial person a company has its own legal entity separate from its members. It can own assets or property, enters into contracts, sue or can be sued by anyone in the court of law. Its shareholders cannot be held liable for any conduct of the company.

4. Perpetual existence: A joint stock company continues to exist as long as it fulfills the requirements of law. It is not affected by the death, lunacy, insolvency or retirement of any of its members.

5. Common seal: A joint stock company has a seal, which is used while dealing with others or entering into contracts with outsiders. It is called a common seal as it can be used by any officer at any level of the organisation working on behalf of the company. Any document, on which the company’s seal is put and is duly signed by any official of the company, become binding on the company.

6. Association of persons: A company is a voluntary association of persons established for profit motive. A private company must have at least 2 persons and the public limited company must have at least 7 persons to get it registered. The maximum number of persons required for the registration in case of private company is 50 and in case of public company there is no maximum limit.

7. Limited liability: The liability of the shareholders is limited to the extent of the face value of the shares held by them. The shareholders are not liable personally for the payment of debt of the company.

8. Transferability of shares: The shares of a public limited company are freely transferable and can be purchased and sold through the stock exchanges. A shareholder of a public limited company can transfer his shares without the consent of other except in case of private companies.

9. Large capital: A joint stock company can raise large amount of capital because the number of persons contributing towards capital are more in number when compared to sole proprietorship or partnership.

10. Democratic management: Joint stock companies have democratic management and control. That is, even though the shareholders are owners of the company, all of them cannot participate in the management of the company. Normally, the shareholders elect representatives from among themselves known as ‘Directors’ to manage the affairs of the company.

Question 37.
What are Commercial Banks? Explain their different functions.
Answer:
The main functions of commercial banks are accepting deposits from the public and advancing them loans. However, besides these functions there are many other functions which these banks perform. All these functions can be divided under the following heads:

1. Accepting Deposits: The most important function of commercial banks is to accept deposits from the public. Various sections of society, according to their needs and economic condition, deposit their savings with the banks. Generally, there are three types of deposits which are as follows:

• Saving Bank Account: These account are introduced by the bank to mobilise small saving of low and middle income group of people. The saving account’ is generally opened in bank by salaried persons or by the persons who have a fixed regular income.
• Current account: This account is opened by businessmen who have a higher number of regular transactions with the bank.
• Recurring Deposit Account: In recurring deposit account, certain fixed amount is invested every month for a specified period and the total amount is repaid with interest at the end of the particular fixed period.
• Fixed Deposit Account: If the money deposited by customer with a bank for a fixed period of time for a fixed rate of interest. It is repayable on expiry of specified period of time.

2. Giving Loans: The second important function of commercial banks is to advance loans to its customers. Banks charge interest from the borrowers and this is the main source of their income. Banks advance loans not only on the basis of the deposits of the public rather they also advance loans on the basis of depositing the money in the accounts of borrowers. In other words, they create loans out of deposits and deposits out of loans. This is called as credit creation by commercial banks.

Banks generally give following types of loans and advances:

• Bank Overdraft: An overdraft is an advance given by the bank allowing a customer to overdraw his current account up to an agreed amount. interest is charged at an agreed rate only on the amount overdrawn.
• Cash Credits: Cash credit is a short term cash loan to a company. It is a financial accommodation under which an advance is granted on a separate account called cash credit account up to a specified limit.
• Demand Loans: These are such loans that can be recalled on demand by the banks. The entire loan amount is paid in lump sum by crediting it to the loan account of the borrower, and thus entire loan becomes chargeable to interest with immediate effect.
• Short-term Loans: These loans may be given as personal loans, loans to finance working capital or as priority sector advances. These are made against some security and entire loan amount is transferred to the loan account of the borrower.

Discounting of Bills of Exchange: It is a short term finance assistance extended by the bank usually to the businesses that they have current account with bank. When a bill of exchange is presented before the bank for encashment, bank credits the amount to customer’s account after deducting some discount, On maturity of the bill, the payment is received by the bank from the drawee.

3. Investment of Funds: The banks invest their surplus funds in three types of securities such as Government securities, other approved securities and other securities.

• Government securities include both, central and state governments, such as treasury bills, national savings certificate, etc.
• Other securities include securities of state associated bodies like electricity boards, housing boards, debentures of land development banks units of UTI, shares of regional rural banks, etc.

4. Agency Functions: Banks function in the form of agents and representatives of their customers. Customers give their consent for performing such functions. The important functions of these types are as follows:

• Banks collect cheques, drafts, bills of exchange and dividends of the shares for their customers.
• Banks make payment for their clients and at times accept the bills of exchange of their customers for which payment is made at the fixed time.
• Banks pay insurance premium of their customers. Besides this, they also deposit loan instalments, income-tax, interest, etc. as per directions.
• Banks purchase and sell securities, shares and debentures on behalf of their customers.
• Banks arrange to send money from one place to another for the convenience of their customers.

5. Miscellaneous Functions: Besides the functions mentioned above, banks perform many other functions of general utility which are as follows:

• Banks make arrangement of lockers for the safe custody of valuable assets of their customers such as gold, silver, legal documents, etc.
• Banks give reference for their customers.
• Banks collect necessary and useful statistics relating to trade and industry.
• For facilitating foreign trade, banks undertake to sell and purchase foreign exchange.
• Banks advise their clients relating to investment decisions as specialist.
• Bank does the under-writing of shares and debentures also.
• Banks issue letters of credit.
• During natural calamities, banks are highly useful in mobilizing funds and donations.

Question 38.
Explain any four merits and demerits of equity shares as a sources of finance
Answer:
Merits:
From Shareholders Point of View:

• The equity shareholders are the owners of the company.
• It is suitable for those who want to take risk for higher return.
• The value of equity shares goes up in the stock market with the increase in profits of the concern.
• Equity shares can be easily sold in the stock market.
• The liability is limited to the nominal value of shares.
• Equity shareholders have a say in the management of a company as they are conferred voting rights.

From Management Point of View:

• A company can raise capital by issuing equity shares without creating any charge on its fixed assets.
• The capital raised by issuing equity shares is not required to be paid back during the lifetime of the company. It will be paid back only when the company is winding up.
• There is no binding on the company to pay dividend on equity shares. The company may declare dividend only if there is enough profits.
• If a company raises more capital by issuing equity shares, it leads to greater confidence among the creditors.

Demerits:

• As equity capital cannot be redeemed, there is a danger of over capitalisation.
• The dividend which a shareholder receives is neither fixed nor controllable by him. The management of the company decides how much dividend should be given.
• Equity share investment is a risky share compared to any other investment.
• Equity shareholders get dividend only if there remains any profit after paying debenture interest, tax and preference dividend. Thus, getting dividend on equity shares is uncertain every year.
• Issue of fresh shares reduces the earnings of existing shareholders.
• Cost of equity is the high when compared to other sources of finance.

Question 39.
Explain the merits and demerits of Mail order houses.
Answer:
Merits:

1. Limited capital requirement: Mail order business does not require heavy expenditure on building and other infrastructural facilities. Therefore, it can be started with relatively low amount of capital.
2. Elimination of middle men: The biggest advantage of mail-order business from the point of view of consumers is that unnecessary middlemen between the buyers and sellers are eliminated. This may result in lot of savings both to the buyers as well as to the sellers.
3. Wide reach: Under this system the goods can be sent to all the places having postal services. This opens wide scope for business as a large number of people throughout the country can be served through mail.
4. Convenience: Under this system goods are delivered at the doorstep of the customers. This results in great convenience to the customers in buying these products.
5. Absence of bad debt: Since the mail order houses do not extend credit facilities to the customers, there are no chances of any bad debt on account of non-payment of cash by the customers.

Limitations:

1. No credit: Super markets sell their products on cash basis only. No credit facilities are made available to the buyers. This restricts the purchasing power of buyers from such markets.
2. No personal attention: Super markets work on the principle of self-service. The customers, therefore, don’t get any personal attention. As a result, such commodities that require personal attention by sales people cannot be handled effectively in super markets.
3. Mishandling of goods: Some customers handle the goods kept in the shelf carelessly. This may raise costs in super markets.
4. High overhead expenses: Super market incurs high overhead expenses. As a result these have not been able to create low price appeal among the customers.
5. Possibility of abuse: This type of business provides greater possibility of abuse to dishonest traders to cheat the customers by making false claims about the products or not honoring the commitments made through hand bills or advertisements.
6. High dependence on postal services: The success of mail order business depends heavily on the availability of efficient postal services at a place. But in a vast country like ours, where many places are still without postal facilities, this type of business has limited prospects.

Question 40.
Explain briefly the steps involved in import procedure.
Answer:

1. Trade enquiry: The importing firm approaches the export firms with the help of trade enquiry they collecting information about their export prices and terms of exports. After receiving a trade enquiry, the exporter will prepare a quotation called proforma invoice.

2. Procurement of import licence: There are certain goods that can he imported freely, while others need licensing. The importer needs to consult the Export Import (EXIM) policy in force to know whether the goods that he or she wants to import are subject to import licensing.

3. Obtaining foreign exchange: Since the supplier in the context of an import transaction resides in a foreign country. he/she demands payment in a foreign currency. Payment in foreign currency involves exchange of Indian currency into foreign currency.

4. Placing order or indent: After obtaining the import licence, the importer places an import order or indent with the exporter for supply of the specified products. The import order contains information about the price, quantity size, grade and quality of goods ordered and the instructions relating to packing, shipping, ports of shipment and destination etc.

5. Arranging for finance: The importer should make arrangements in advance to pay to the exporter on arrival of goods at the port. Advanced planning for financing imports is necessary so as to avoid huge demur rages (i.e.. penalties) on the imported goods lying uncleared at the port for want of payments.

6. Obtaining letter of credit: If the payment terms agreed between the importer and the overseas supplier is a letter of credit, then the importer should obtain the letter of credit from its bank and forward it to the overseas supplier.

7. Receipt of shipment advice: After loading the goods on the vessel, the overseas supplier dispatches the shipment advice to the importer. A shipment advice contains information about the shipment of goods.

8. Retirement of import documents: Having shipped the goods, the overseas supplier prepares a set of necessary documents as per the terms of contract and letter of credit and hands it over to his or her banker for their onward transmission and negotiation to the importer in the manner as specified in the letter of credit.

9. Arrival of goods: Goods are shipped by the overseas supplier as per the contract. The person in charge of the carrier (ship or airway) informs the officer in charge at the dock or the airport about the arrival of goods in the importing country. It provides the document called import general manifest. Import general manifest is a document that contains the details of the imported goods.

10. Customs clearance and release of goods: All the goods imported into India have to pass through customs clearance after they cross the Indian borders. Customs clearance is a somewhat tedious process and calls for completing a number of formalities. It is, therefore, advised that importers appoint C&F agents who are well versed with such formalities and play an important role in getting the goods customs cleared.

Section – E

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions: ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 41.
You are planning to start a new business. Make a list of any five factors you consider while selecting a suitable form of business organization.
Answer:
The five factor that should be considered while selecting a suitable form of business organisation are:

1. Cost
2. Liability
3. Continuity
4. Management ability
5. Degree of control
6. Capital consideration
7. Nature of business.

Question 42.
As a promoter, state five important documents to be prepared for the incorporation of a joint stock company.
Answer:
Five document to be prepared for the incorporation of a joint stock company.

1. Memorandum of association.
2. Articles of association / Statement in lieu of the prospectus.
3. Written consent of the proposed directors.
4. A copy of the registrar’s letter approving the name of the company.
5. A statutory declaration affirming that all legal requirements for registration have been complied with.

Question 43.
Being a consumer, name the types of large fixed retail shops which you would like to do your shopping.
Answer:
The types of large fixed retail shops:

1. Departmental stores
2. Chain stores
3. Consumer co-operative stores
4. Supermarket
5. Mail order houses.

Students can Download 1st PUC Business Studies Model Question Paper 2 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Business Studies Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus.

Karnataka 1st PUC Business Studies Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 100

Instructions to candidates:

1. Write the serial number of questions properly as given in the question paper while answering
2. Write the correct and complete answers.

Part – A

I. Answer any TEN of following questions in a word or a sentence each. While answering Multiple Choice Questions, write the serial number/alphabet of the correct choice and write the answer corresponding to it. Each question carries one mark. ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
What is economic activity?
Answer:
Economic activities are those by which we earn our livelihood.

Question 2.
Give any one type of Business Organisation.
Answer:
Co-operative Society.

Question 3.
Mention any one features of global enterprise.
Answer:
Huge capital resources.

Question 4.
Expand DTH.
Answer:
Direct to Home.

Question 5.
The payment machines most suitable to E-business is
(a) Cash on delivery
(b) Cheque
(c) Cr and Dr Cards
(d) e-cash
Answer:
(d) e-cash.

Question 6.
Write any one important type of pollutions.
Answer:
Land pollution.

Question 7.
A prospectus is issued by
(a) A private company
(b) A public company seeking investment from public
(c) A public enterprise
(d) A public company
Answer:
(d) A public company.

Question 8.
Expand SEBI.
Answer:
Securities and Exchange Board of India.

Question 9.
In which years, the MSMED At was enacted?
Answer:
June 16, 2006 the MSMED Act was enacted.

Question 10.
What is internal Trade?
Answer:
It means exchange of goods and services within the geographical boundaries.

Question 11.
What is export trade?
Answer:
It refers to the sale of goods to the other countries.

Question 12.
Name any one document of Export Business.
Answer:
Export Invoice.

Section – B

II. Answer any ten of the following questions in two or three sentences each. Each question carries 2 marks. ( 10 × 2 = 20 )

Question 13.
What is business?
Answer:
Business is an economic activity, which involves production or procurement of goods and services, with the main objectives is earning profit.

Question 14.
State any two merits of sole proprietary organisation.
Answer:

1. Easy of formation and closure.
2. Quick decision making.

Question 15.
Give the meaning of Joint Ventures?
Answer:
It refers to two or more companies joining together forming a single business is called joint venture.

Question 16.
Mention any two types of Banks
Answer:

1. Central Bank.
2. Commercial Bank.

Question 17.
State any two limitations of E-business.
Answer:

1. Less Security.
2. Dependent on internet.

Question 18.
What is business ethics?
Answer:
Business ethics is defined as a set of moral standards which the society experts from the business man.

Question 19.
Name any two steps in the formation of company.
Answer:

1. Promotion stage.
2. Incorporation stage.

Question 20.
What are debentures?
Answer:
The companies can raise long term funds by issuing document that carry assured rate of return for investors is called debentures.

Question 21.
Write any two rights of preference share holders.
Answer:

1. Payment of dividend.
2. Repayment of capital.

Question 22.
State any two features of wholesaler.
Answer:

1. The wholesaler purchases goods in large quantities from different manufacturers and resells to the retailers.
2. Wholesalers serve as an important link between manufacturers and retailers.

Question 23.
Define International Business.
Answer:
According to Michael R. Czinkota, “International business consists of transactions that are devised and carried out across national borders to satisfy the objectives of the individuals, companies and organisations. These transactions take on various forms which are often interrelated”.

Question 24.
Name any two commodity boards.
Answer:

1. Coffee Board.
2. Tea Board.

Section – C

III. Answer any seven of the following questions in 10-12 sentences. Each question carries 4 marks: ( 7 × 4 = 28 )

Question 25.
Explain the any four auxiliaries to trade.
Answer:
1. Transport and communication: Transport removes the hindrances of place. Transport facilitates through road, rail or coastal shipping facilitate movement of raw material to the place of production and the finished products from factories to the place of consumption.

2. Banking and finance: Business activities cannot be undertaken unless funds are available for acquiring assets and meeting the day-to-day expenses. Necessary funds can be obtained by businessmen from a bank. Thus, banking helps business activities to overcome the problem of finance.

3. Insurance: The risk of loss or damage to the factory building, machinery, furniture, goods held in stock or goods in course of transport due to theft, fire, accidents, etc. is removed by insurance of goods.

4. Warehousing: Usually, goods are not sold or consumed immediately after production. They are held in stock to be available as and when required. Special arrangement must be made for storage of goods to prevent loss or damage.

Question 26.
Explain any four characteristics of departmental undertaking.
Answer:

1. Formation: These enterprises are established as departments of the ministry and are considered part or an extension of the ministry itself.
2. Control: The administration of these undertakings is directly under the control of concerned ministry or minister.
3. Capital: The required capital is provided by the government in the annual budget.
4. Income: The income of these departments should be deposited daily into government treasury.
5. Management: The employees of the enterprise are government servants and they are headed by Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officers and civil servants who are transferable from one ministry to another.

Question 27.
Explain four types of banks.
Answer:
1. Commercial Banks: Commercial banks are institutions dealing in money. These are governed by Indian Banking Regulation Act 1949 and according to it banking means accepting deposits of money from the public for the purpose of lending or investment.

2. Cooperative Banks: Cooperative Banks are governed by the provisions of State Cooperative Societies Act and meant essentially for providing cheap credit to their members. It is an important source of rural credit i.e., agricultural financing in India.

3. Specialized Banks: Specialized banks are foreign exchange banks, industrial banks, development banks, export-import banks catering to specific needs of these unique activities. These banks provide financial aid to industries, heavy turnkey projects and foreign trade.

4. Central Bank: The Central bank of any country supervises controls and regulates the activities of all the commercial banks of that country. It also acts as a government banker. It controls and coordinates currency and credit policies of any country.

Question 28.
Distinguish between traditional business and E-business.
Answer:

Point of differences	Traditional	E – Business
1. Formation	Difficult	Simple
2. Physical presence	Required	Not required
3. Cost of setting	High	Low
4. Operating cost	High	Low
5. Nature of contract with supplier and customer	Indirect	Direct
6. Opportunity for inter personal touch	More	Less
7. Level of going global	Less	More

Question 29.
Explain any four steps that business enterprise should be taken to protect the environment.
Answer:
Five measure to control environment pollution are:

1. Definite commitment by top management of enterprise to create, maintain and develop work culture for environmental protection and pollution prevention.
2. Complying with laws and regulations enacted by the government for prevention of pollution.
3. Participation in government programmes relating to management of hazardous substance, plantation of trees and checking deforestation.
4. Ensuring that commitment to environmental protection is shared throughout the enterprise by all divisions and employees.
5. Arranging educational workshop and training materials to share technical information and experience with suppliers, dealers and customers to get them actively involved in pollution control programmes.

Question 30.
Explain the social responsibility of business towards
(a) Shareholders
(b) Consumer
Answer:
Social responsibility of business towards shareholders:

• A fair rate of dividend should be regularly paid by the business enterprises to their owners.
• Management techniques should be effective and efficient so that the net present value of the business is maximized.
• Owners should be given the right to participate in the affairs of the enterprise.
• The tendency towards the growth of ‘Oligarchic management’ should he arrested.
• The owners should be given the full information regarding the working of the company. In other words, accurate and comprehensive reports have to be supplied.
• Financial information has to be disclosed and doubts have to be clarified.
• Chairman and directors of the company should be easily accessible to the owner.

Social responsibility of business towards consumer:

• Ensuring availability of products in the right quantity, at the right place and at the right time.
• Maintaining the quality of the goods, increasing the quality to maximum extent so as to complete with any international product.
• Charging reasonable prices to its products.
• Correct weights and measures have to be used.
• The company must provide after sale service for maintenance of goods.
• The business firms should avoid restrictive trade practices and see that full justice is done to the amount that is spent by a consumer.
• Constant investigation and discovery of growing wants of consumers, giving importance for research and development of new products that satisfy their wants.
• Taking all such measures which promote consumer satisfaction, interest and welfare.

Question 31.
What are the four merits of equity share as a sources of business finance.
Answer:
Merits:
From Shareholders Point of View:

• The equity shareholders are the owners of the company.
• It is suitable for those who want to take risk for higher return.
• The value of equity shares goes up in the stock market with the increase in profits of the concern.
• Equity shares can be easily sold in the stock market.
• The liability is limited to the nominal value of shares.
• Equity shareholders have a say in the management of a company as they are conferred voting rights.

From Management Point of View:

• A company can raise capital by issuing equity shares without creating any charge on its fixed assets.
• The capital raised by issuing equity shares is not required to be paid back during the lifetime of the company. It will be paid back only when the company is winding up.
• There is no binding on the company to pay dividend on equity shares. The company may declare dividend only if there is enough profits.
• If a company raises more capital by issuing equity shares, it leads to greater confidence among the creditors.

Question 32.
Explain any four financial needs of a business.
Answer:

1. To purchase fixed assets: Every type of business needs some fixed assets like land and building, furniture, machinery, etc. A large amount of money is required for purchase of these assets.
2. To meet day-to-day expenses: After establishment of a business, funds are needed to carry out day-to-day operations.
3. To fund business growth: Growth of business may include expansion of existing line of business as well as adding new lines. To finance such growth, one needs more funds.
4. To bridge the time gap between production and sales: The amount spent on production is realized only when sales are made. Normally, there is a time gap between production and sales and also between sales and realization of cash. Hence during this interval, expenses continue to be incurred, for which funds are required.
5. To meet contingencies: Funds are always required to meet the ups and downs of business and for some unforeseen problems.

Question 33.
Explain briefly any four problems faced by small business.
Answer:
1. Finance: The most serious problem faced by SSIs is that non-availability of adequate finance to carry out their operations. Small scale sector lacks the creditworthiness and collateral required to raise capital from the capital markets or financial institutions and hence they depend on local money lenders who charge high interest rates.

2. Raw materials: Another major problem of small business is the procurement of raw materials. If the required materials are not available, they have to compromise on the quality or have to pay a high price to get good quality materials. They purchase raw materials in small quantities due to lack of storage capacity and hence their bargaining power ¡s low.

3. Managerial skills: Small business is generally promoted and operated by a single person, who may not possess all the managerial skills required to run the business. Many of the small business entrepreneurs possess sound technical knowledge but are less successful in marketing and may not find enough time to take care of all functional activities.

4. Less productive labour: Small business firms cannot afford to pay high salaries to their employees, which affects employee willingness to work. Thus, productivity per employee is relatively low and employee turnover is generally high. Small business organizations are unable to attract talented people because of lower remuneration. Division of labour cannot be practiced in small scale units, which results in lack of specialization and concentration.

Question 34.
Explain briefly any four services of retailers to consumers.
Answer:
Services of retailers towards customer are:

1. Regular availability of products: The most important service of a retailer to consumer is to maintain regular availability of various products produced by different manufacturers.
2. New products information: By arranging for effective display of products and through their personal selling efforts, retailers provide important information about the arrival, special features, etc. of new products to the customers.
3. Convenience in buying: Retailers generally buy goods in large quantities and sell these in small quantities, according to the requirements of their customers.
4. Wide selection: Retailers generally keep stock of a variety of products of different manufacturers. This enables the consumers to make their choice out of a wide selection of goods.

Section – D

IV. Answer any four of the following questions in 20-25 sentences each Each question carries 8 marks. ( 4 × 8 = 32 )

Question 35.
Explain the features of Sole Proprietorship.
Answer:
Advantages of Sole Proprietorship:

1. Quick decision making: A sole proprietor enjoys considerable degree of freedom in making business decisions. Further, the decision making is prompt because there is no need to consult others.

2. Confidentiality of information: Sole decision making authority enables the proprietor to keep all the information related to business operation confidential and maintain secrecy.

3. Direct incentive: The need to share profits does not arise as he/she is the single owner. This provides maximum incentive to the sole trader to work hard.

4. Sense of accomplishment: There is a personal satisfaction involved in working for oneself. The knowledge that one is responsible for the success of the business not only contributes to self-satisfaction but also instills in the individual a sense of accomplishment and confidence in ones abilities.

Limitations of sole proprietorship:

1. Limited resources: Resources of a sole proprietor are limited to his/her personal savings and borrowings from others. Banks and other lending institutions may hesitate to extend a long term loan to a sole proprietor.

2. Limited life of a business concern: In the eyes of the law the proprietorship and the owner are considered one and the same. Death, insolvency or illness of a proprietor affects the business and can lead to its closure.

3. Unlimited liability: If the business fails, the creditors can recover their dues not merely from the business assets, but also from the personal assets of the proprietor. A poor decision or an unfavorable circumstance can create serious financial burden on the owners.

4. Limited managerial ability: The owner has to assume the responsibility of varied managerial tasks such as purchasing, selling, financing, etc. It is rare to find an individual who excels in all these areas. Thus, decision making may not be balanced in all the cases.

5. Competition of big industries: Now-a-days in a modern world demands are more. To full fill those numerous demands big industries were formed. By producing goods in large scale, supply them at low rates and also provide other number of facilities. As such sole trading concern unable to complete with them.

Question 36.
Explain the merits & demerits of partnership.
Answer:
Merits:

• Ease of formation and closure: Like sole proprietorship, the partnership business can be formed easily without any legal formalities.
• More funds: In a partnership, the capital is contributed by a number of partners. This makes it possible to raise larger amount of funds as compared to a sole proprietor and undertake additional operations when needed.
• Sharing risks: The risks involved in running a partnership firm are shared by all the partners. This reduces the anxiety, burden and stress on individual partners.
• Secrecy: A partnership firm is not legally required to publish its accounts and submit its reports. Hence it is able to maintain confidentiality of information relating to its operations.

Demerits:

• Limited capital: Since the total number of partners cannot exceed 20, the capital to be raised is always limited. It may not be possible to start a very Large business in partnership form.
• Lack of continuity of business: A partnership firm comes to an end in the event of death, lunacy or retirement of any partner. Even otherwise, it can discontinue its business at the will of the partners. At any time, they may take a decision to end their relationship.
• Lack of public confidence: There is no governmental supervision over the affairs of the business of a partnership and publishing accounts is also not necessary. Hence, public may not have full confidence in them.
• Unlimited liability: The liability of each partner is not limited to the amount invested but his private property is also liable to pay the business obligations.

Question 37.
Explain briefly the principles of Insurance.
Answer:
1. Principle of utmost good faith: According to this principle, the insurance contract must be signed by both parties (i.e. insurer and insured) in an absolute good faith or belief or trust. The person getting insured must willingly disclose and surrender to the insurer his complete true information regarding the subject matter of insurance.
Example: If any person has taken a life insurance policy by hiding the fact that he is a cancer patient and later on if he dies because of cancer then Insurance Company can refuse to pay the compensation as the fact was hidden by the insured.

2. Principle of insurable interest: As per this principle, the insured must have insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance. It means insured should gain by the existence or safety and lose by the destruction of the subject matter of insurance.
Example: If a person has taken the loan against the security of a factory premises then the lender can take fire insurance policy of that factory without being the owner of the factory because he has financial interest in the factory premises.

3. Principle of indemnity: According to the principle of indemnity, an insurance contract is signed only for getting protection against unpredicted financial losses arising due to future uncertainties. Insurance contract is not made for making profit else its sole purpose is to give compensation in case of any damage or loss.
Example: A person insured a car for 5 lakhs against damage or an accident case. Due to accident he suffered a loss of 3 lakhs. then the insurance company will compensate him 3 lakhs not only the policy amount i.e., 5 lakhs as the purpose behind it is to compensate not to make profit.

4. Principle of contribution: According to this principle, the insured can claim the compensation only to the extent of actual loss either from all insurers in a proportion or from any one insurer.
Example: A person gets his house insured against fire for 50,000 with insurer A and for 25,000 with insurer B. A loss of 37,500 occurred. Then A is liable to pay 25,000 and B is liable to pay 12,500.

5. Principle of subrogation: According to the principle of subrogation, when the insured is compensated for the losses due to damage to his insured property, then the ownership right of such property shifts to the insurer.
Example: If a person receives Rs. 1 lakh for his or her damaged stock, then the ownership of the stock will be transferred to the insurance company and the person will hold no control over the stock.

6. Principle of mitigation of loss: According to the Principle of mitigation of loss, insured must always try his level best to minimize the loss of his insured property, in case of uncertain events like a fire outbreak or blast, etc. The insured must not neglect and behave irresponsibly during such events just because the property is insured.
Example: If a person has insured his house against fire, then, in case of fire, he or she should take all possible measures to minimise the damage to the property exactly in the manner he or she would have done in absence of the insurance,

7. Principle of Causa Proxima: Principle of Causa Proxrna (a Latin phrase), or in simple English words, the Principle of Proximate (i.e. Nearest) Cause, means when a loss is caused by more than one causes, the proximate or the nearest cause should be taken into consideration to decide the liability of the insurer.
Example: If an individual suffers a loss in A fire accent, then this should already he a part of the contract in order for this person to claim the insurance amount.

Question 38.
What are retained earnings? Explain.
Answer:
Company generally does not distribute all its earnings amongst the shareholders as dividends. A portion of the net earnings may be retained in the business for use in the future. This is known as retained earnings.

Merits:

• Retained earnings is a permanent source of funds available to an organisation.
• It does not in involve any explicit cost in the form of interest, dividend or flotation cost.
• As the funds are generated internally, there is a greater degree of operational freedom and flexibility.
• It enhances the capacity of the business to absorb unexpected losses.
• It may lead to increase ¡n the market price of the equity shares of a company.

Demerits:

• Excessive ploughing back may cause dissatisfaction amongst the shareholders as they would get lower dividends.
• It is an uncertain source of funds as the profits of business are fluctuating.
• The opportunity cost associated with these funds is not recognized by many firms. This may lead to sub-optimal use of the funds.

Question 39.
Explain merits and limitations of super market.
Answer:
Merits:

• Central location: The super markets are generally located in the heart of the city. As a result, these are easily accessible to large number of people staying in the surrounding localities.
• Wide selection: Super markets keep a wide variety of goods of different designs, colour, etc. which enables the buyers to make better selection.
• No bad debts: As generally the sales are made on cash basis, there are no bad debts in super markets.
• Benefits of being large scale: A super market is a large scale retailing store. It enjoys all the benefits of large scale buying and selling because of which its operating costs are lower.
• One roof, low cost: Super markets offer a wide variety of products at low cost, under one roof. These outlets are, therefore, not only convenient but also economical to the buyers for making their purchases.

Limitations:

• No credit: Super markets sell their products on cash basis only. No credit facilities are made available to the buyers. This restricts the purchasing power of buyers from such markets.
• No personal attention: Super markets work on the principle of self-service. The customers. therefore, don’t get any personal attention. As a result, such commodities that require personal attention by sales people cannot be handled effectively in super markets.
• Mishandling of goods: Some customers handle the goods kept in the shelf carelessly. This may raise costs in super markets.
• high overhead expenses: Super market incurs high overhead expenses. As a result these have not been able to create low price appeal among the customers.
• Huge capital requirement: Establishing and running a super market requires huge investment. The turnover of a store should be high so that the overheads are kept under reasonable level. This can be possible in bigger towns but not in small towns.

Section – E

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions: ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 41.
You are planning to start a new business. Make a list of any five factors you consider while selecting a suitable form of business organization.
Answer:
The five factor that should be considered while selecting a suitable form of business organisation are:

1. Cost
2. Liability
3. Continuity
4. Management ability
5. Degree of control
6. Capital consideration
7. Nature of business.

Question 42.
As a businessman having concern for environment protection, suggest any five measures to control environment pollution.
Answer:
Five measure to control environment pollution are:

• Definite commitment by top management of enterprise to create, maintain and develop work culture for environmental protection and pollution prevention.
• Complying with laws and regulations enacted by the government for prevention of pollution.
• Participation in government programmes relating to management of hazardous substance, plantation of trees and checking deforestation.
• Ensuring that commitment to environmental protection is shared throughout the enterprise by all divisions and employees.
• Arranging educational workshop and training materials to share technical information and experience with suppliers, dealers and customers to get them actively involved in pollution control programmes.

Question 43.
Mention any five foreign trade promotion measures and schemes undertaken by the Government of India to boost up foreign trade.
Answer:
Five foreign trade promotion measures and schemes undertaken by Government of India to boost up foreign trade are:

1. Duty drawback scheme.
2. Advance licence scheme.
3. Exemption from payment of sales taxes.
4. Export promotion capital goods scheme.
5. Export finance at concessional rates of interest.
6. Export of services.
7. Export processing zones.
8. 100 percent export oriented unit.

Students can Download 1st PUC Hindi Model Question Paper 3 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Hindi Model Question Papers with Answers help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Hindi Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

I. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 1.
श्रीकंठ सिंह का किसके साथ ब्याह हो गया?

प्रश्न 2.
सबसे पहले हमारे तरुणों को क्या बनना चाहिए?

प्रश्न 3.
किसने बिन्दा के पैरों पर तिल का तेल लगाया?

प्रश्न 4.
डॉ. भीमराव अंबेडकर के पिता का नाम क्या था?

प्रश्न 5.
हृदय रोगियों के लिए किस तरह का भोजन अच्छा नहीं है?

प्रश्न 6.
बेहोशी का अभिनय करनेवाले लड़के का नाम लिखिए।

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिएः (3 × 3 = 9)

प्रश्न 7.
भूपसिंह का परिचय दीजिए।

प्रश्न 8.
भारत का पुनरुत्थान कैसे होगा?

प्रश्न 9.
पत्नी की मृत्यु का डॉ. अंबेडकर पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ा?

प्रश्न 10.
दिल का दौरा और एनजाईना किन कारणों से होता है?

प्रश्न 11.
धरती ‘वसुन्धरा’ क्यों कहलाती है?

II. अ) निम्नलिखित वाक्य किसने किससे कहे? (1 × 4 = 4)

प्रश्न 12.
लाल बिहारी को मैं अब अपना भाई नहीं समझता।

प्रश्न 13.
आपने आयु ठीक नहीं भरी है।

प्रश्न 14.
थर्ड डिवीजनर के लिए दुनिया में कोई जगह नहीं है?

प्रश्न 15.
नहीं, कई बेटे अपने बाप से भी बड़े हो जाते हैं।

आ) निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं दो का ससंदर्भ स्पष्टीकरण कीजिए: (3 × 2 = 6)

प्रश्न 16.
‘इस प्रकार का निंदक बड़ा दुःखी होता है।’

प्रश्न 17.
‘अभागी मरती भी नहीं।

प्रश्न 18.
‘इसी कारण नारायण यहाँ बदरीनाथ के नाम से प्रसिद्ध है।’

प्रश्न 19.
‘अच्छा उसे उसी का दूध निकालकर पिलाओ।’

III. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 20.
मीराबाई ने प्रेम मग्न होकर क्या पी लिया?

प्रश्न 21.
गोपी सिर पर क्या धारण करना चाहती है?

प्रश्न 22.
कवयित्री का जीवन क्या लुटा रहा है?

प्रश्न 23.
कविं बच्चन का जीवन कैसे बीता?

प्रश्न 24.
‘तुम आओ मन के मुग्ध मीत’ कविता के कवि कौन है?

प्रश्न 25.
नारी अबला नहीं बल्कि क्या है?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (3 × 2 = 6)

प्रश्न 26.
कबीर ने राम स्मरण का कौन सा सही मार्ग समझाया है?

प्रश्न 27.
सीताजी कुटिया में कैसे सुखी है?

प्रश्न 28.
‘उल्लास’ कविता का आशय संक्षेप में लिखिए।

प्रश्न 29.
कवि प्रतिभा पाने के लिए पाठकों को कौन-सा संदेश देते हैं?

इ) ससंदर्भ भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए: (4 × 2 = 8)

प्रश्न 30.
तुलसी संत सुअंब तरु, फूलि फलहिं पर-हेत।
इतते ये पाहन हनत, उतते वे फल देत॥
अथवा
कहते हैं कनक माया है, कनक माया नहीं
कहते हैं कामिनी माया है, कामिनी माया नहीं
कहते हैं माटी माया है, माटी माया नहीं
मन के आगे जो चाह है, वही माया है, गुहेश्वर।

प्रश्न 31.
चढ़ रही थी धूप
गर्मियों के दिन
दिवा का तमतमाता रूप।
उठी झुलसाती हुई लू॥
अथवा
कोई साथ न रहने पर भी
चन्दा-तारे साथ रहेंगे।
दर्द तुम्हारा बाँटेंगे वे,
तुमसे अपनी बात कहेंगे।

IV. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 32.
ठाकुर सरदार सिंह को कौन कहानियाँ सुनाता था?

प्रश्न 33.
मनुष्य सबसे अधिक प्रेम किससे करता है?

प्रश्न 34.
किसका लिहाज करना चाहिए?

प्रश्न 35.
भीख माँगना किसी भी व्यक्ति के लिए क्या है?

प्रश्न 36.
शैलजा किसके लिए सिल्लोरानी थी?

प्रश्न 37.
‘दोपहर का भोजन’ कहानी के कहानीकार कौन है?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिएः (3 × 3 = 9)

प्रश्न 38.
मधुआ का चरित्र चित्रण कीजिए।

प्रश्न 39.
नवयुवक के बारे में श्मशान का अंतःकरण क्या कह रहा था?

प्रश्न 40.
चम्मच खो जाने पर वीरजी की क्या प्रतिक्रिया हुई?

प्रश्न 41.
चंद्रप्रकाश अपने फ्लैट में बेघर लोगों को क्यों नहीं रख पाया?

प्रश्न 42.
सिलिया की शादी के बारे में उसकी माँ को लोगों ने क्या सलाह दी?

प्रश्न 43.
सिद्धेश्वरी के परिवार का संक्षिप्त परिचय दीजिए।

V. अ) वाक्य शुद्ध कीजिए: (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 44.
क) मेरे को उसने बुलाया है।
उत्तरः
मुझे उसने बुलाया है।

ख) तुम्हें ऐसी बातें नहीं करनी चाहिए।
उत्तरः
तुम्हें ऐसी बात नहीं करनी चाहिए।

ग) हमारे माता जी मेले में गए हैं।
उत्तरः
हमारी माताजी मेले में गई हैं।

घ) आप इधर बैठो।
उत्तरः आप इधर बैठिए।

ङ) राम, लक्ष्मण और सीता वन को गई।
उत्तरः
राम, लक्ष्मण और सीता वन को गए।

आ) कोष्टक में दिये गये उचित कारक चिन्हों से रिक्त स्थान भरिएः (1 × 5 = 5)

(बलिष्ठ, गुणवती, भेदनाशक, गुनगुने, ऐसी)

प्रश्न 45.
क) ……… स्त्री की पूजा सर्वत्र होती है।
ख) निन्दा का ऐसा ही …… अँधेरा होता है।
ग) बड़े घर की बेटियाँ ……. ही होती है।
घ) अनुपम एक ………. लड़का है।
ङ) वे ……… पानी से स्नान करते हैं।
उत्तरः
क – गुणवती; ख – भेदनाशक; ग – ऐसी; घ – बलिष्ठ; ङ – गुनगुने।

इ) निम्नलिखित मुहावरों को अर्थ के साथ जोड़कर लिखिए: (1 × 4 = 4)

प्रश्न 46.
1) कान काटना – क) ध्यान देना।
2) कान देना – ख) मात करना (outwit)
3) कान खड़े होना – ग) सुधरने की प्रतिज्ञा करना।
4) कान ऐंठना – घ) सावधान होना।
उत्तरः
1 – ख; 2 – क; 3 – घ; 4 – ग।

ई) निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को सूचनानुसार बदलिए: (1 × 3 = 3)

प्रश्न 47.
क) तीन सौ उम्मीदवार चुने जाएंगे। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
तीन सौ अध्यापक चुने जाते हैं।

ख) मुसाफिर हाथ हटा लेता है। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
मुसाफिर ने हाथ हटा लिया था।

ग) फिर भी मैं तुम्हें बुजदिल ही कहता हूँ। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
फिर भी मैं तुम्हें बुजदिल ही कहूँगा।

उ) अन्य लिंग रूप लिखिएः (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 48.
मुर्गा, भिखारी।
उत्तरः
मुर्गी, भिखारिन।

ऊ) अन्य वचन रूप लिखिए: (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 49.
शाला, दीवार।
उत्तरः
शालाएँ, दीवारें।

ए) समानार्थक शब्द लिखिए : (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 50.
गणेश, मीन।
उत्तरः
गजानन, मछली।

ऐ) विलोम शब्द लिखिए : (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 51.
सरल, बलवान।
उत्तरः
कठिन, बलहीन।

VI. अ) निम्नलिखित अनुच्छेद पढ़कर उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 52.
संसार में तीन बातें बड़ी महत्वपूर्ण होती है। इनको प्राप्त करके तुम संसार के किसी भी कोने में जाओगे, तो अपना निर्वाह कर सकोगे। ये तीन बातें हैं – अपनी आत्मा का, अपने आप का और ईश्वर का सच्चा ज्ञान प्राप्त करना। इनका मतलब यह नहीं कि तुम्हें अक्षर ज्ञान नहीं मिलेगा। वह तो मिलेगा ही। लेकिन तुम उसकी चिंता करो, यह मैं नहीं कहता। इसके लिए तुम्हारे पास अभी बहुत समय है। अक्षर-ज्ञान तो इसलिए होता है कि जो कुछ तुम्हें मिला है, उसे तुम दूसरों को दे सको। इतना और याद रखना कि अब से हमें गरीबी में रहना है। जितना अधिक मैं विचार करता हूँ, उतना ही अधिक मुझे लगता है कि गरीबी में ही सुख है। इसलिए मेरी इच्छा है कि अपने परिवार में तुम एक योग्य किसान बनो। अक्षर-ज्ञान में गणित और संस्कृत पर पूरा ध्यान रखना। भविष्य में संस्कृत तुम्हारे लिए बहुत उपयोगी सिद्ध होगी। ये दोनों विषय बड़ी उम्र में सीखना कठिन है।
प्रश्नः

1. उपर्युक्त गद्यांश में किन तीन महत्वपूर्ण बातों की चर्चा की गई है?
2. लेखक के अनुसार ‘अक्षर-ज्ञान’ का क्या उद्देश्य है?
3. लेखक अपने पुत्र को योग्य किसान बनने की सलाह क्यों दे रहा है?
4. अक्षर-ज्ञान में कौन सी दो विषयों का ध्यान रखना है?
5. इस गद्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शीर्षक दीजिए।

उत्तरः

1. अपनी आत्मा का, अपने आप का और ईश्वर का सच्चा ज्ञान प्राप्त करना – इन तीन महत्वपूर्ण बातों की चर्चा की गई है।
2. ‘अक्षर-ज्ञान’ इसलिए होता है कि हम उसे दूसरों को भी दे सकें।
3. गरीबी में ही सुख है। इसलिए लेखक अपने पुत्र को किसान बनने की सलाह दे रहा है।
4. अक्षर-ज्ञान में संस्कृत और गणित का पूरा ध्यान रखना है।
5. ‘अक्षर-ज्ञान’।

आ) पत्र लिखिएः (5 × 1 = 5)

प्रश्न 53.
स्वास्थ्य में अपेक्षित सुधार लाने के लिए नित्य व्यायाम करने की प्रेरणा देते हुए अपने छोटे भाई को पत्र लिखिए।
अथवा
अपने गली-मोहल्ले की समुचित सफाई के लिए नगर पालिका के अध्यक्ष को पत्र लिखिए।

इ) हिन्दी में अनुवाद कीजिए: (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 54.

No person can be happy without friends.
उत्तरः
बिना मित्रों के कोई सुखी नहीं रह सकता।

Fresh air is very essential for good health.
उत्तरः
शुद्ध हवा अच्छे स्वास्थ्य के लिए जरूरी है।

Before a film is produced the script is written.
उत्तरः
फिल्म का निर्माण करने से पहले पटकथा लिखी जाती है।

Time lost cannot be regained.
उत्तरः
बीता हुआ समय कभी लौटकर नहीं आता।

Friends are our real well-wishers.
उत्तरः
मित्र हमारे सच्चे (असली) शुभ-चिन्तक हैं।

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Karnataka 1st PUC Hindi Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

समय : ३ घंटे १५ मिनट]
कुल अंक : १००

सूचना :

• सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर हिन्दी भाषा तथा देवनागरी लिपि में लिखना आवश्यक है।
• प्रश्नों की क्रमसंख्या लिखना अनिवार्य है।

I. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 1.
मुगदर की जोड़ी किसने बनवा दी थी?

प्रश्न 2.
‘मूकनायक’ पत्रिका के संपादक कौन थे?

प्रश्न 3.
ई.सी.जी. के बाद क्या करवाने के लिए सलाह देते हैं?

प्रश्न 4.
तुंगनाथ शिखर कितने फुट उँचा है?

प्रश्न 5.
लेखक के पास पहुंचे हुए उम्मीदवार किस डिवीजन में पास है?

प्रश्न 6.
संस्कृति का अमिट भंडार किसमें भरा हुआ है?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (3 × 3 = 9)

प्रश्न 7.
भारत का पुनरुत्थान कैसे होगा?

प्रश्न 8.
निंदा की प्रवृत्ति कैसे बढ़ती जाती है?

प्रश्न 9.
अंबेडकर जी के बाल्य जीवन का परिचय दीजिए।

प्रश्न 10.
दिल का दौरा पड़ने पर प्राथमिक उपचार के लिए क्या कदम उठाने चाहिए?

प्रश्न 11.
पूर्वजों के बारे में हमें कैसी भावना रखनी चाहिए?

II. अ) निम्नलिखित वाक्य किसने किससे कहे? (1 × 4 = 4)

प्रश्न 12.
तुम तो ईश्वर के संतान हो, अमर आनंद के भागी हो, पवित्र और पूर्ण आत्मा हो।

प्रश्न 13.
अभागी मरती भी नहीं।

प्रश्न 14.
हमारे लिए हर दरवाजा बंद है।

प्रश्न 15.
इसका चेहरा कह रहा है कि यह होश में है।

आ) निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं दो का ससंदर्भ स्पष्टीकरण कीजिए: (3 × 2 = 6)

प्रश्न 16.
‘मैंके के सामने हम लोगों को कुछ समझती ही नहीं।’

प्रश्न 17.
‘तुम नयी अम्मा को पुरानी अम्मा क्यों नहीं कहती, फिर वे न नयी रहेंगी और न डाँटेगी।’

प्रश्न 18.
‘हम हरगिज नहीं मानते कि कागज की तीन लकीरों के कारण हम लोग नालायक हैं।’

प्रश्न 19.
‘सन्निपात है वैद्य परमानन्द को और स्नायुरोग है प्रोफेसर पांडुरंग को।’

III. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 20.
कबीर के दोनों ओर कौन खड़े हैं?

प्रश्न 21.
कूडलसंगम देवा के शरणों के अनुभाव से क्या छूट गया?

प्रश्न 22.
कवयित्री ने शैशव प्रभात में क्या देखा?

प्रश्न 23.
दुनिया कैसी है?

प्रश्न 24.
कवि मित्र को देवलोक का कौन सा गीत मानते हैं?

प्रश्न 25.
स्वार्थी संसार क्या याद नहीं रखता है?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (3 × 2 = 6)

प्रश्न 26.
रसखान ब्रज में किन रूपों में जन्म लेने की इच्छा प्रकट करते हैं?

प्रश्न 27.
‘कुटिया में राजभवन’ कविता का आशय संक्षेप में लिखिए।

प्रश्न 28.
कवि मानव ने नवयुवकों को किन बातों से न घबराने की सलाह दी है?

प्रश्न 29.
नारी के शक्ति रूपों का वर्णन कीजिए।

इ) ससंदर्भ भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए: (4 × 2 = 8)

प्रश्न 30.
तुलसी एहि संसार में, भाँति भाँति के लोग।
सब सो हिल मिल बोलिए, नदी नाव संयोग ॥
अथवा
या देही रो गरब ना करना माटी मा मिल जासी।
यो संसार चहर री बाजी साँझ पड्या उठ जासी ॥

प्रश्न 31.
गुरु हथौड़ा हाथ,
करती बार-बार प्रहार –
सामने तरु-मालिका अट्टालिका, प्राकार।
अथवा
प्रतिभा बोली – “यातना, निरन्तर कष्ट-सहन की ताकत में
मैं बसती हूँ संघर्ष-निरत साधक में, असिधारा-व्रत में।”

IV. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 32.
लल्लू कौन था?

प्रश्न 33.
युवक की अग्रगामिनी कौन थी?

प्रश्न 34.
सन्तु की पीठ पर क्या पड़ी?

प्रश्न 35.
लक्ष्मीबाई नगर से द्वारका तक के रास्ते में लेखक किन्हें देखते हैं?

प्रश्न 36.
जहाँ चाह होती है, वहाँ क्या बनने लगती हैं?

प्रश्न 37.
मुंशीजी की तबीयत किससे ऊब गई थी?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिएः (3 × 3 = 9)

प्रश्न 38.
शराबी ठाकुर सरदारसिंह को कौन-कौन-सी कहानियाँ सुनाता था?

प्रश्न 39.
अंततः पहाड़ी ने तरस खाकर श्मशान से क्या कहा?

प्रश्न 40.
वीरजी की सगाई में जाने की बात सुनकर मंगलसेन की प्रतिक्रिया कैसी थी?

प्रश्न 41.
दिल्ली में शीत लहर के प्रकोप का वर्णन कीजिए।

प्रश्न 42.
हेमलता की मौसी ने सिलिया के साथ कैसा बर्ताव किया?

प्रश्न 43.
रामचंद्र का परिचय दीजिए।

V. अ) वाक्य शुद्ध कीजिए: (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 44.
क) मजदूरों की सभा हो रहा है।
उत्तरः
मजदूरों की सभा हो रही है।

ख) हमने इसको विचार किया है।
उत्तरः
हमने इसका विचार किया है।

ग) मैंने खाना खाना याद था।
उत्तरः
मुझे खाना खाना याद था।

घ) मेरा भाई विद्यालय में प्रवेश हो गया।
उत्तरः
मेरे भाई को विद्यालय में प्रवेश मिल गया।

ङ) गत रविवार वह मुंबई जाएगा।
उत्तरः
गत रविवार वह मुंबई गया था।

आ) कोष्टक में दिये गये उचित कारक चिन्हों से रिक्त स्थान भरिएः (के, से, का, में, गया) (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 45.
क) जागना सारी चिंता ………. मूल बन गया।
ख) वह तेजी ……. महानाश की ओर दौड़ पड़ा है।
ग) मेरे बचपन …….. साथी रमेश डॉक्टर है।
घ) चोर मौका पाते ही भाग ………।
ङ) पृथ्वी के गर्भ ……… अमूल्य निधियाँ है।
उत्तरः
क – का; ख – से; ग – के; घ – गया; ङ – में।

इ) निम्नलिखित मुहावरों को अर्थ के साथ जोड़कर लिखिए: (1 × 4 = 4)

प्रश्न 46.
1) अंक भरना – क) क्रोध करना।
2) आँख दिखाना – ख) थकान की पीड़ा होना।
3) अंग टूटना – ग) प्रसन्नता से रोम रोम खिलना।
4) अंग-अंग मुसकाना – घ) गोद मे भर लेना।
उत्तरः
1 – घ; 2 – क; 3 – ख; 4 – ग।

ई) निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को सूचनानुसार बदलिए: (1 × 3 = 3)

प्रश्न 47.
क) माता अपने सब पुत्रों को समान भाव से चाहती थी। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
माता अपने सब पुत्रों को समान भाव से चाहती है।

ख) मनुष्य सभ्यता का निर्माण करेगा। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
मनुष्य ने सभ्यता का निर्माण किया था।

ग) अब उसका ब्याह करना पड़ता है। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
अब उसका ब्याह करना पड़ेगा।

उ) अन्य लिंग रूप लिखिए: (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 48.
अध्यापक, कवि।
उत्तरः
अध्यापिका, कवयित्री।

ऊ) अन्य वचन रूप लिखिए: (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 49.
मुद्रा, सखी।
उत्तरः
मुद्राएँ, सखियाँ।

ए) समानार्थक शब्द लिखिए : (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 50.
बिजली, अमृत।
उत्तरः
विद्युत, सुधा।

ऐ) विलोम शब्द लिखिए : (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 51.
सगुण, पावन।
उत्तरः
निर्गुण, अपावन/अपवित्र।

VI. अ) निम्नलिखित अनुच्छेद पढ़कर उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 52.
ईश्वर ने संसार के सारे रहस्य प्रकृति में छिपा कर रख दिये थे। मनुष्य ने अपने परिश्रम और प्रयत्न से उन रहस्यों पर से पर्दा उठा दिया। यह कहना गलत है कि मनुष्य संसार में आते समय अपना भाग्य लेकर आता है; वास्तव में वह अपने भाग्य का स्वयं निर्माता है जो वह अपनी मेहनत से बनाता है। प्रकृति मनुष्य के भाग्य से डर कर नहीं बल्कि उसके परिश्रम से हार मानती है। जो लोग भाग्य पर विश्वास करते हैं, वे आलसी हैं। वास्तव में ”वीर और परिश्रमी व्यक्ति अपना भाग्य स्वयं बनाता है।

प्रश्नः

1. ईश्वर ने संसार के सारे रहस्य किसमें छिपाकर रख दिये थे?
2. किसने अपने परिश्रम और प्रयत्न से रहस्यों पर से पर्दा उठा दिया?
3. प्रकृति किससे हार मानती है?
4. भाग्य पर विश्वास करनेवाले लोग कैसे होते हैं?
5. अपने भाग्य का निर्माता कौन है?

उत्तरः

1. ईश्वर ने संसार के सारे रहस्य प्रकृति में छिपाकर रख दिये थे।
2. मनुष्य ने अपने परिश्रम और प्रयत्न से रहस्यों से पर्दा उठा दिया।
3. प्रकृति मनुष्य के परिश्रम से हार मानती है।
4. भाग्य पर विश्वास करनेवाले लोग आलसी हैं।
5. परिश्रमी व्यक्ति अपने भाग्य का निर्माता स्वयं है।

आ) पत्र लिखिएः (5 × 1 = 5)

प्रश्न 53.
अपने पिताजी को पत्र लिखकर उन्हें विद्यालय के वार्षिक उत्सव पर आमंत्रित कीजिए।
अथवा
अपने बैंक प्रबंधक को एक पत्र लिखकर बैंक की कार्य व्यवस्था के बारे में कुछ सुझाव दीजिए।

इ) हिन्दी में अनुवाद कीजिए: (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 54.
क)
Scorpions are common in the Sahara desert.
उत्तरः
सहारा के रेगिस्तान में बिच्छुओं का होना आम है।

ख)
They like cool places.
उत्तरः
वे शीतल जगह पसंद करते हैं।

ग)
They are active at night.
उत्तरः
वे रात में सक्रिय होते हैं।

घ)
Their sting is poisonous.
उत्तरः
उनका डंक जहरीला है।

ङ)
Birds have two feathers.
उत्तरः
पक्षियों के दो पंख होते हैं।

Students can Download 1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 3 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Accountancy Model Questions with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Time: 3.15 minutes
Max. Marks: 100

SECTION – A

I. Answer any 8 questions each carry 1 mark. (1 × 8 = 08)

Question 1.
What is accounting concepts?
Answer:
Accounting concepts means assumptions upon which accounting is based and recorded.

Question 2.
Shares is the example for……..
Answer:
Revenue or income.

Question 3.
Write the meaning of representative person.
Answer:
The person who represents the artificial person called representative person. Example: Debtors account, creditors account, capital account.

Question 4.
What is trade discount?
Answer:
Trade discount is a reduction in the catalogue price or invoice price of the goods sold.

Question 5.
Write the principles of preparation of trial balance.
Answer:
The principle of preparation of trial balance is debit entry have automatic credit on some other account.

Question 6.
Mention the different types of acceptance.
Answer:

1. General acceptance: If the drawee of the bills accepts the bill without any condition then it is called general acceptance.

2. Qualified acceptance: If the drawee of the bill accepts the bill by adding some conditions called qualified acceptance of bills.

Question 7.
What is profit and loss appropriation a/c?
Answer:
The financial statement prepared at the period and to show how the profit of a company appropriate or the internal profit of the company allocation called ‘profit and loss appropriation’ account.

Question 8.
If opening capital is ‘60,000, drawings ‘5,000, additional capital ‘10,000, closing capital ‘90,000, what will be the profit earned?
Answer:
Profit = Closing capital + Drawings – (Additional capital + Opening capital)
Profit = 90,000 + 5,000 – (10,000 + 60,000) Profit = 25,000.

Question 9.
State any two units of CPU.
Answer:
Two unite of CPU are:

1. Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)
2. Memory unit
3. Control unit

Question 10.
Mention the different types of software.
Answer:
The different types of software are:

1. Operating system
2. Utility program
3. Application software
4. Language processors
5. System software
6. Connectivity software.

SECTION – B

II. Answer any 5 questions each carries 2 marks. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 11.
Who are External users of accounting information?
Answer:
External users of accounting informations are

• Investors.
• Suppliers & creditors
• Customers
• Government
• Common man or society

Question 12.
Write any four concepts of accounting.
Answer:

1. Money measurement concepts
2. Dual concepts
3. Business entity concept
4. Continuity concept.

Question 13.
Write the rule of Nominal a/c.
Answer:
The nominal a/c rule is – “DEBIT ALL EXPENSES AND LOSSES CREDIT ALL INCOMES AND GAINS”

Question 14.
What is bank overdraft?
Answer:
It is a current a/c. Where bank provide opportunity to withdraw more than deposit called (B.O.D.) Bank Over Draft.

Question 15.
Write the meaning of one side error. Give example.
Answer:
Any errors affects only one side, either debit or credit aspects of transaction it is called one side error.
Example: Pasting Rs. 500 as Rs. 50.

Question 16.
Mention the statements prepared under final accounts.
Answer:
The Financial statements prepared under final accounts are:

1. Trading account
2. Profit and Loss a/c
3. Profit and loss appropriation a/c
4. Balance sheet

Question 17.
What is meant by Accounting Package?
Answer:
Accounting Package means a collection of programs which process accounting information or data to provide required results in the form of financial statements to users.

Question 18.
What is Reserve?
Answer:
Reserve is an appropriation of profit retained to meet unknown liabilities or contingencies.

SECTION – C

III. Answer any 4 questions each carries 6 marks. (6 × 4 = 24)

Question 19.
How is a computer needful?
Answer:
The following facts makes computer needful:

1. Performs complex and repetitive calculations.
2. Computer works with greater speed and accuracy.
3. Capacity to store large volumes of data.
4. Stored information can be retrained immediately.
5. It does not get tired or bored.

Question 20.
What is petty cash book? Write the advantages of petty cash book?
Answer:
Petty cash book is used for recording payments of small expenses, which are of smaller denominations such as postage, stationery, conveyance, refreshment, etc. person who maintains petty cash book is known as petty cashier and these small expenses are termed as petty expenses.

It is prepared by the below given two methods:
1. Ordinary system:
Under this system, a certain sum of money is given to the petty cashier for the payment of petty expenses. After spending the whole amount, the accounts are submitted by the petty cashier to the main cashier.

2. Imprest system:
Under this system, a fixed sum of money is given to the petty cashier in the beginning of a period to meet the petty expenses to be incurred in that period. At the end of the period, the amount spent by petty cashier is reimbursed. So, the petty cashier has the same fixed amount of money in the beginning of the next period.

Advantages of petty cash book
1. Simple method:
Recording of transactions in a petty cash book is easy. In an analytical petty cash book, there exists separate heads for different petty expenses, which makes recording much easier. Recording in a petty cash book does not require formal knowledge of accounting principles and techniques.

2. Time saving:
Recording in petty cash book saves time and efforts of the chief cashier.

3. Efficient control:
At the end of a period, petty cash book is audited by the main cashier, so frauds and errors are less probable.

4. Convenient handling:
Recording in petty cash book is convenient, as entries are to be recorded under separate heads, which makes posting easier and quicker.

Question 21.
Give any five advantages of a Journal.
Answer:
Advantages of a Journal are :

1. It provides date wise record of ail the transaction. This facilitates quick and easy reference of any transaction.
2. It provides complete record of all the transactions at one place.
3. By providing narration to each entry , journal helps to understand the purpose and nature of the entry.
4. Maintenance of journal, besides ledger helps to avoid mistakes or errors in the books of accounts.
5. It is useful in rectification of errors.

Question 22.
Pass Journal Entries for rectifying the following errors (without opening suspense A/c)

1. ₹ 2,000 received from a tenant has been credited to tenant’s account.
2. ₹ 800 tuition fees of ward paid by the proprietor has been recorded as office expenses.
3. ₹ 500 spent on the repairs of furniture has been debited to furniture account,
4. Credit purchases from Ramesh ₹ 1,000 has been recorded in sales book.
5. ₹ 5,000 paid to an employee as salary debited to his personal account.

Answer:

Question 23.
Given below are some transactions of Shri Das. Use Accounting equations to show their effect on his assets, liabilities, and Capital:

1. Started business with cash ₹ 60,000
2. Purchased furniture for each ₹ 3,000
3. Purchased goods on credit from Ramesh ₹ 6,000
4. Withdrew for personal use ₹ 1,000
5. Sold goods costing ₹ 3,000 for ₹ 4,000

Answer:

Question 24.
Explain the special features of accounts from incomplete records.
Answer:
Special features of accounts from incomplete records are:

1. Both the aspect of each and every transactions are not recorded.
2. Under this system all kinds of accounts are maintained.
3. It is simple and easy method of book keeping.
4. It is less costly.
5. It is not very supportive to find out exact profit of the business concern.
6. Not possible to find out correct profit or loss of a concern.

Question 25.
Enter the following transaction in Sales Return Book :
2104
July 5. Returned goods by Indian Glass-ware Company
200 Glass cups at ₹ 10 per up
100 Juice cups at ₹ 20 per cup
Less Trade discount at 10%

20. Returned by Hindustan Deptt. Stores
150 Coffee cups at ₹ 10 per cup
25 plates at ₹ 20 per plate
Less trade discount at 10%
Answer:

SECTION – D

IV. Answer any 4 questions each carries 12 mark. (12 × 4 = 48)

Question 26.
On 1^st January, 2014, X sold goods worth ₹ 5,000 to Y and drew a bill on Y at three months for the amount. Y accepted the bill and returned it to Z who endorsed the bill one month after the acceptance in favour of Z in settlement of his debt for ₹ 5,100. The bill is honoured on maturity. Pass the necessary journal entries in the books of X, Y, and Z.
Answer:

Question 27.
On 31^st December, 2013, the following Trial Balance was extracted from the books of a merchant.

Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31^st December, 2013 and Balance Sheet as on the date after making adjustments of the following:

1. Depreciate Land and Buildings at 2 \(1 / 2\)% and Motor Vehicles at 20%
2. Salaries outstanding ₹ 700.
3. Prepaid Insurance ₹ 200.
4. Provision for Bad Debts is to be maintained at 5% on Sundry Debtors.
5. Stock in hand on 31^st December, 2013 was valued at ₹ 7,000.

Answer:

Question 28.
Jayalakshmi has not kept her books under Double-entry System and asks you to prepare a statement showing her profits for the year ended 31^st December, 2013 and a Revised Statement of Affairs as on that date. Her financial position was as follows:

During the year, Jayalakshmi’s drawings amounted to ₹ 8,000 and she has invested ₹ 5,000 at par on 1-7-2013 in 12% Debenture, which is to be now treated as a business asset. The interest on the same is still due. Depreciate furniture by ₹ 500.
Answer:

Question 29.
Journalize the following transactions and post them to various ledger accounts:

Answer:

Question 30.
Prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement from the following Particulars.

Answer:

Question 31.
Enter the following transactions in the subsidiary books of Soundarya Saree Shop.
2001
Aug. 1. Purchased from Pathi Silk Kendra
100 Printed Sarees at ₹ 250 each

5. Purchased from NSR & Company
200 Kanchi Sarees at ₹ 1,000 each

7. Sold to Kumar on account
50 Printed Sarees at ₹ 300 each
100 Kanchi Sarees at 1,250 each

8. Claimed for damages from Pathi Silk Kendra ₹ 500

9. Returned damaged goods to NSR & Company
5 Kanchi Sarees

12. Purchased from Sudarshan Silks
150 Mysore Silk at ₹ 250 each
100 Handloom Sarees at ₹ 750 each
Less trade discount at 10%

15. Sold to Kala on account
20 Printed Sarees at ₹ 300 each
25 Kanchi Sarees at ₹ 1,300 each
20 Mysore Silk Saree at ₹ 300 each
Less trade discount at 5%

20. Sold to Kusum Sarees
40 Handloom Sarees at ₹ 1,000 each

21. Kumar returned
10 Printed Sarees
20 Kanchi Sarees

25. Returned to Sudarshan’s Silk
25 Mysore Silk

27. Returned from Kusum Sarees
10 Handloom Sarees

30. Purchased from Nandi Silk
400 Nandhi brand Sarees at ₹ 500 each
Answer:

Purchase Returns Book

Question 32.
X Ltd. acquired a lease for 5 years on 1^st April, 2008 at a cost of ₹ 30,000. It was decided to depreciate it under the annuity method at 5% interest. Annuity table shows that at 5%, Re. 1 over 5 years is equivalent to Re. 0.230975.
Write up the Lease A/c and Depreciation A/c for 5 years ending 31.03.2013.
Answer:
Calculation of Depreciation = 30,000 × 0.230975
= 6929.25

SECTION – E

V. Answer any 2 questions each carry 5 mark. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 33.
Prepare a Statement of Affairs using imaginary figures.
Answer:
Statement of Affairs

Question 34.
Write the Accounting Equation and find out the missing figures:

Answer:
1. Assets = Capital + Liabilities
₹ 3,40,000 = ₹ 3,20,000 + ₹ 20,000

2. Liabilities = Assets – Capital
₹ 2,00,000 = ₹ 3,50,000 – ₹ 1,50,000

3. Capital = Asset – Liabilities
₹ 1,75,000 – ₹ 2,00,000 – ₹ 25,000

Question 35.
Draft a specimen of the Balance sheet with imaginary figures.
Answer:

Students can Download 1st PUC Hindi Model Question Paper 1 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Hindi Model Question Papers with Answers help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Hindi Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

समय : ३ घंटे १५ मिनट]
कुल अंक : १००

सूचना :

• सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर हिन्दी भाषा तथा देवनागरी लिपि में लिखना आवश्यक है।
• प्रश्नों की क्रमसंख्या लिखना अनिवार्य है।

I. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 1.
बेनीमाधव सिंह किस गाँव के जमींदार थे?

प्रश्न 2.
लेखक के मन में किसके प्रति मैल नहीं रहा?

प्रश्न 3.
‘बिन्दा’ रेखाचित्र की लेखिका कौन है?

प्रश्न 4.
दिल के दौरा का प्रमुख लक्षण क्या है?

प्रश्न 5.
उम्मीदवारों में कौन अधिक संख्या में थे?

प्रश्न 6.
राष्ट्र का तीसरा अंग कौनसा है?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (3 × 3 = 9)

प्रश्न 7.
स्वदेश भक्ति के बारे में स्वामी विवेकानंद जी का आदर्श क्या है?

प्रश्न 8.
अंबेडकर ने पीड़ित समाज के उद्धार के लिए क्या-क्या किया?

प्रश्न 9.
निन्दकों के संघ के बारे में लिखिए।

प्रश्न 10.
चैयरमन साहब के बँगले पर का दृश्य प्रस्तुत कीजिए।

प्रश्न 11.
वैद्य परमानन्द गाय की बीमारी दूर करने का क्या उपाय बताते हैं?

II. अ) निम्नलिखित वाक्य किसने किससे कहे? (1 × 4 = 4)

प्रश्न 12.
बहू-बेटियों का यह स्वभाव अच्छा नहीं कि मर्दो के मुँह लगे।

प्रश्न 13.
अभागी मरती भी नहीं।

प्रश्न 14.
‘अरे बिच्छू-बिच्छू।

प्रश्न 15.
घबराइए मत। आँखें मत खोलिए, आप शेर से लड़िए।

आ) निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं दो का ससंदर्भ स्पष्टीकरण कीजिए: (3 × 2 = 6)

प्रश्न 16.
‘पर तुमने आजकल घर में क्या उपद्रव मचा रखा है?’

प्रश्न 17.
‘तब क्या उस घर में विवाह हो रहा है, और हो रहा है तो किसका?’

प्रश्न 18.
‘यह मार्ग अपेक्षाकृत भयानक है, इसलिए इसका सौंदर्य भी अभी अछूता है।’

प्रश्न 19.
‘भूमि माता है, मैं उसका पुत्र हूँ।’

III. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 20.
तुलसीदास के अनुसार कौन से दो बीज हैं?

प्रश्न 21.
अल्लमप्रभु देव के आराध्य कौन थे?

प्रश्न 22.
तट पर आकर कौन पानी पीते हैं?

प्रश्न 23.
कवि बच्चन जी किसके कंठों से दर्द की आवाज सुनते हैं?

प्रश्न 24.
चित्रकार ने किसको समेट लिया है?

प्रश्न 25.
वीर काँटों को क्या समझता है?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (3 × 2 = 6)

प्रश्न 26.
मीराबाई ने उनके ऊपर हुए अनाचारों का वर्णन कैसे किया है?

प्रश्न 27.
‘तोड़ती पत्थर’ कविता का सारांश अपने शब्दों में लिखिए?

प्रश्न 28.
बच्चन जी पाठकों को क्या-क्या भेंट देते हैं?

प्रश्न 29.
नारी के विभिन्न गुणों का परिचय दीजिए।

इ) ससंदर्भ भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए: (4 × 2 = 8)

प्रश्न 30.
निंदक नियरे राखिये, आँगन कुटी छबाय।
बिन पानी, साबुन बिना निर्मल करै सुभाय ॥
अथवा
मोर-पखा सिर ऊपर राखिहौं, गुंज की माला गरें पहिरौंगी।
ओढ़ि पितम्बर लै लंकुटी बन, गोधन ग्वारनि संग फिरौंगी॥
भावतो वोहि मेरो ‘रसखानि’, सो तेरे कहें सब स्वांग करौंगी।
या मुरली मुरलीधर की, अधरान-धरी अधरा न धरौंगी॥

प्रश्न 31.
मैं हूँ प्रेममयी, जग दिखता
मुझे प्रेम का पारावार।
भरा प्रेम से मेरा जीवन,
लुट रहा है निर्मल प्यार ॥
अथवा
तुम देवलोक आनंद गीत-आशा अखण्ड शोभा परीत
मैं स्नेह विकल झंकृत प्रगीत-तुम आओ मन के मुग्ध मीत ॥

IV. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 32.
कहानी सुनने का शौक किसको था?

प्रश्न 33.
‘श्मशान’ कहानी की लेखिका कौन है?

प्रश्न 34.
थाली में चाँदी के कितने चम्मच रखे हुए थे?

प्रश्न 35.
भीख माँगना किसी भी व्यक्ति के लिए क्या है?

प्रश्न 36.
सिलिया की सहेली का नाम लिखिए।

प्रश्न 37.
रामचंद्र की पढ़ाई कहाँ तक हुई थी?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिएः (3 × 3 = 9)

प्रश्न 38.
शराबी पात्र का चरित्र-चित्रण कीजिए।

प्रश्न 39.
श्मशान ने आह भरकर पहाडी से क्या कहा?

प्रश्न 40.
‘खून का रिश्ता’ कहानी के उद्देश्य पर प्रकाश डालिए।

प्रश्न 41.
चन्द्रप्रकाश का चरित्र-चित्रण कीजिए।

प्रश्न 42.
सिलिया ने अपने संकल्प को किस प्रकार साकार किया?

प्रश्न 43.
बीमार प्रमोद की हालत कैसी थी?

V. अ) वाक्य शुद्ध कीजिए: (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 44.
क) सभी उसको तारीफ करते हैं।
उत्तरः
सभी उसकी तारीफ करते हैं।

ख) मोहन की पिताजी अस्वस्थ्य हैं।
उत्तरः
मोहन के पिताजी अस्वस्थ हैं।

ग) सुभाषचंद्र बोस महान नेता था।
उत्तरः
सुभाषचंद्र बोस महान नेता थे।

घ) बकरी ने बाघिन को देखी।
उत्तरः
बकरी ने बाघिन को देखा।

ङ) मैं किताब पढ़कर के ही उढूँगा।
उत्तरः
मैं किताब पढ़कर ही उदूंगा।

आ) कोष्टक में दिये गये उचित कारक चिन्हों से रिक्त स्थान भरिएः (पर, में, के, का, से) (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 45.
क) देवदारू ……… पेड़ भी इधर बहुत है।
ख) उसे पद ……. हटा दिया गया।
ग) चुल्हें ……… चढ़ाया दूध उफना जा रहा था।
घ) वह घर ……….. नहीं है।
ङ) उसकी बहन ……… नाम मालती है।
उत्तरः
क – के; ख – से; ग – पर; घ – में; ङ – का।

इ) निम्नलिखित मुहावरों को अर्थ के साथ जोड़कर लिखिएः (1 × 4 = 4)

प्रश्न 46
1) आँख से ओझल होना – क) कृपादृष्टि न रखना।
2) आँखों में रात काटना – ख) नेत्र ज्योती समाप्त होना।
3) आँख बदल जाना – ग) नजर से दूर होना।
4) आँखें बैठना – घ) चिन्ता या व्यग्रता में रात बिताना।
उत्तरः
1 – ग; 2 – घ; 3 – क; 4 – ख।

ई) निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को सूचनानुसार बदलिए: (1 × 3 = 3)

प्रश्न 47.
क) वह एक छाता खरीद लेगा। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
वह एक छाता खरीद रहा है।

ख) गर्मियों में बाहर गली में सोना पड़ेगा। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
गर्मियों में बाहर गली में सोना पड़ा।

ग) तरकारी भी लौकी की ही बन गई। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
तरकारी भी लौकी की ही बनने वाली हैं।

उ) अन्य लिंग रूप लिखिए: (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 48
ग्वाला, बुद्धिमती।
उत्तरः
ग्वालिन, बुद्धिमान।

ऊ) अन्य वचन रूप लिखिए: (1 × 2 = 2

प्रश्न 49.
मछली, केला।
उत्तरः
मछलियाँ, केले।

ए) समानार्थक शब्द लिखिए : (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 50.
आभूषण, शरीर।
उत्तरः
गहना, देह।

ऐ) विलोम शब्द लिखिए : (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 51.
समर्थ, आधार।
उत्तरः
असमर्थ, निराधार।

VI. अ) निम्नलिखित अनुच्छेद पढ़कर उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिएः (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 52.
विनय का अभाव एक प्रकार का खोखलापन प्रकट करता है। जिन लोगों में कोई श्लाघनीय गुण नहीं होता, वे अपनी ऐंठ और डाँट-फटकार से लोगों पर प्रभाव जमाते हैं, किंतु गुणवानों को इनकी आवश्यकता नहीं। उनका प्रभाव तो स्वतः सिद्ध है। यदि विनयशील मनुष्य का समाज में प्रभाव थोड़ा हो, तो विनयशील मनुष्य का दोष नहीं; यह समाज का दोष है। इसके अतिरिक्त प्रेम का प्रभाव चाहे थोड़ा हो, पर दबाव के प्रभाव की अपेक्षा, वह चिरस्थायी होता है। यदि थोड़ी देर के लिए मान भी लिया जाए कि विनय सब स्थानों में काम नहीं देती – जैसे शत्रु के सम्मुख, तथापि हमें वह कहना पड़ेगा कि विनयशील पुरुष को ऐसे अवसर कम आएँगे कि जब अपनी विनय के कारण दुखद अनुभव करना पडे। विनय के साथ निरभिमानता, मानव जाति का आदर, सहनशीलता, धैर्य आदि अनेक सद्गुण लगे हुए हैं।

प्रश्नः

1. विनय का अभाव एक प्रकार से क्या प्रकट करता हैं?
2. श्लाघनीय गुण न होने से लोग क्या करते है?
3. विनय किस स्थान पर काम नहीं देता?
4. उपर्युक्त गद्यांश को उचित शीर्षक दीजिए।
5. विनय के साथ जुड़े अन्य सद्गुण कौन-से हैं?

उत्तरः

1. विनय का अभाव एक प्रकार का खोखलापन प्रकट करता हैं।
2. वे अपनी ऐंठ और डाँट-फटकार से लोगों पर प्रभाव जमाते हैं।
3. विनय शत्रु के सम्मुख काम नहीं देता।
4. विनय का जीवन में महत्व’ / ‘विनयशीलता’।
5. विनय के साथ निराभिमानता, मानव जाति का आदर, सहनशीलता, धैर्य आदि अनेक सद्गुण है।

आ) पत्र लिखिएः (5 × 1 = 5)

प्रश्न 53.
बड़ी बहन के नाते अपने भाई को रक्षाबंधन के अवसर पर राखी भेजते हुए एक पत्र लिखिए।
अथवा
आर्थिक सहायता माँगते हुए अपने प्रधानाचार्य को आवेदन पत्र लिखिए।

इ) हिन्दी में अनुवाद कीजिए: (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 54.

We are living in an age of science.
उत्तरः
हम विज्ञान के युग में रह रहे हैं।

Never carry petrol in plastic cans.
उत्तरः
कभी भी प्लास्टिक के डिब्बे में पेट्रोल नहीं ले जाना चाहिए।

The Nile is the longest river in the world with a length of more than 6,400 km.
उत्तरः
नैल नदी, जिसकी लंबाई 6400 कि मी है, दुनिया की सबसे लंबी नदी है।

Owls eat small mammals and insects.
उत्तरः
उल्लू छोटे स्तनधारी जीवों एवं कीड़ों को खाते हैं।

The battle of Talikota took place on January 23, 1565.
उत्तरः
तालिकोट की लड़ाई 23 जनवरी, 1565 को हुई थी।

Students can Download 1st PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (North), Karnataka 1st PUC Political Science Model Questions with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (North)

Time: 3:15 Hours
Max. Marks: 100

1. Answer the following questions in a sentence each: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Who is the father of Political Science?
Answer:
Aristotle.

Question 2.
Who is the author of “The Prince”?
Answer:
Nicolo Machiavelli

Question 3.
Which is the root word of Sovereignty?
Answer:
Latin word ‘Superanus’

Question 4.
Give an example of Unitary Government?
Answer:
England

Question 5.
When did the Indian Constitution came into force?
Answer:
26^th January 1950.

Question 6.
Who was the Chairman of Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Question 7.
Name the two Houses of Indian Parliament.
Answer:
Loksabha and Rajyasabha

Question 8.
What is Executive?
Answer:
An organ which implement the law is called Executive

Question 9.
Which is the final court of appeal?
Answer:
Supreme Court

Question 10.
Expand P.D.O.
Answer:
Panchayat Development Officer

II. Answer any Ten of the following questions in 2-3 sentences each. (10 × 2 = 20 )

Question 11.
Define Political Science.
Answer:
According to Garries“Political Science deals with the origin, development, purpose and all political problems of the state”.

Question 12.
Why is man a social animal?
Answer:
Man by nature is a social animal. He organized society to fulfill his needs and lead his life happily and comfortably.

Question 13.
What is welfare state?
Answer:
A state which provides the basic requirements to all the people from birth to death is called welfare state.

Question 14.
Define Liberty?
Answer:
According to GD.H Cole, “Liberty is the freedom of an individual to express without external hindrances to personality”.

Question 15.
What is written constitution? Give example.
Answer:
A written constitution is one that has been deliberately written by the Constituent Assembly ExIndia.

Question 16.
State the meaning of secular state.
Answer:
The state should treat all religions equally and provide opportunities equally is called secular sate.

Question 17.
What do you mean by adult franchise?
Answer:
All the adult citizens can exercise their voting power without the discrimination of caste, creed, colour, religion is called adult franchise

Question 18.
What is the Quoram of the house?
The business of the house cannot be conducted unless there is the requisite quorum of 1/10 of the total membership of the house is called a quorum.

Question 19.
What are the qualifications required for the president of India.
Answer:

1. Must be a citizen of India
2. Must attained the age of 35 years
3. Must not hold any office of profit
4.  Must not be mad, lunatic and criminal

Question 20.
What do you mean by consumer court?
Answer:
The court which has been formed to safeguard the interests of consumer in the market is called consumer court.

Question 21.
What is Local Self Government?
Answer:
The administrative units which have been formed by the statutory law to meet the local needs fastly at the local level are called local self governments.

Question 22.
Name any two standing committees of Zilla panchayath.
Answer:

1. General Committee.
2. Social committee.

III. Answer any Eight of the following in 15 to 20 sentences each : (8 × 5 = 40)

Question 23.
Explain the cope of political science.
Answer:
1. Aristotle described political science as a ‘master science’ which made it perhaps the greatest contribution to the making of political science scientific. Hie term “Scope” refers to the subject or the boundaries of a particular branch of knowledge.

There is no perfect agreement among the political thinkers as to the problems, which come under the study of political science. Broadly speaking, there are three groups of writers holding different views on the scope of political science.

2. The first group of writers like Garies, Gamer, Goodnow, and Bluntschli restricted the scope of political science only to the study of the state.

3. The second groups of writers like Prof. Sheley and Dr. Stephen Leacock said that political science deals with government only.

4. The third groups of writers like Gettell, Gilchrist, Paul Janet, and Prof. Laski maintained that the scope of political science extends to both state and government. Prof. Laski maintains that the state, in reality, means the government.

5. We may agree with the third group of writers that political science is a study of both state and government is the steering wheel of the ship of the state. There can be no state without a government, the state remains the central subject of our study, and the whole mechanism of government revolves around it.

6. Scope according to the UNESCO; the international Political Science Association at its Paris Conference in 1948 discussed the scope of political science and marked out its subject matter
as follows:
1. Political Theory:
Political Theory, History of Political Ideas.

2. Government:
The Constitution, the Government-Regional and Local Government, Public Administration, Economic and Social functions of government, Comparative political institutions.

3. Parties, Groups and Public Opinion:
Political Parties, Group and Associations, Citizen Participation in Government and administration, Public Opinion.

4. International Relations:
International relations, International organization and Administration, International Law.

Question 24.
Explain The differences between State and Nation.
Answer:

State	Nation
1. State is Political Institution	1. Nation is Social Institution
2. The State should be a nation	2. Nation can become state
3. The state four elements such as population, territory government, and sovereignty	3. Nation has no four elements. It has Population and territory.
4. State expresses the political concept	4. Nation has internal, psychological, Spiritual concepts
5. State is limited	5. Nation is universal
6. State has sovereignty	6. Nation has no sovereignty
7. State may lose its state ship	7. Nation is permanent
8. State is Supreme	8. Nation is not supreme
9. State is organized	9. Nation has social, religious, cultural nature
10. State has the power to punish the people	10. Nation has no power to punish the people

Question 25.
Explain The features of sovereignty.
Answer:
Jean Bodin – who was the first to explain the concept of sovereignty said “Sovereignty is the supreme power over citizens and subjects unrestrained by law.”

According to Hugo Grotius “Sovereignty is the supreme power vested in him whose acts are not subjected to any other whose will can’t be can override.”

Characteristics of Sovereignty:
a. Permanent:
Sovereignty is permanent. Every state is sovereign it is accordingly permanent. The death of the rules or the change in government doesn’t mean any change in sovereign power. It comes to an end when the state is destroyed or is conquered and ruled by some external power.

b. Universality:
Sovereignty embraces each and every person and every association within the territory of the state. No individual or association in the state can disobey the sovereign authority of the state.

c. Sovereignty can’t be transfered:
The state has no right to give away its sovereignty. When a state loses or has to give up a part of the territory and population to another state, that part comes under the control of that state.

d. Indivisible:
Sovereignty can’t be divided. Division of sovereignty leads to destruction of sovereignty.

f. Absoluteness:
Sovereignty is absolute. There can be no legal power within the state, superior to it. All individuals, associations come under the absolute power of the state. The state is completely independent.

Question 26.
What are the kinds of law? Explain.
Answer:

1. Moral Rights
2. Legal Rights.
3. Civil Rights.
4. Political Rights.
5. Economic Rights.

• Moral Rights: are those which based on the ethical code of morality of people.
• Legal Rights: are recognised and protected by the state.
• civil rights: are those rights which enable the individual to lead a normal life in society.
• Political rights: enable a citizen to take part in the affairs of the government.
• Economic rights: enable citizens to earn their living.

Question 27.
Describe essential elements of Ideal Constitution.
Answer:
The essentials of an ideal constitution are explained as below:
1. It should be definite :
An ideal constitution should not be vague but clearly narrate the provisions which relates to the organization of the government. The principles should be precise and clear.

2. It should be comprehensive:
An ideal constitution must be comprehensive enough to mention the functions of the government and rights, duties of the citizens. The constitution should not be too big but include all the information on the government.

3. Method of amendment:
An ideal constitution should possess the method of amendment. As the social condition of the people is going on change, the constitution must also undergo change. It should represent the future needs of the future generation.

4. It should correspond to reality :
An ideal constitution should correspond to the real, conditions obtained within the state, otherwise, it cannot work properly.

Question 28.
Explain the features of unwritten constitution.
Answer:
The features of unwritten constitution are explained below.

1. An unwritten constitution is not written by the constitution assembly but evolved over a period of time.
2. It is not deliberately framed by the experts but grown by customs, traditions, and usages.
3. An unwritten constitution has not come in to effect from a particular date.
4. In un written constitution the provisions with relates to the organization of the government, rights, and duties of the citizens are the fruits of customs traditions and usages.

Question 29.
Write the text of the preamble of Indian Constitution
Answer:
The preamble of the constitution of India explains the aims and ideology and reads as:
WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN, DEMOCRATIC, SOCIALIST, SECULAR and REPUBLIC Nation and securing to all its citizens.

• JUSTICE- social, economic and political.
• LIBERTY- of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship.
• EQUALITY- of status and of opportunity and to promote among them all.
• FRATERNITY- assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and the integrity of the Nation.

The idea of the preamble has been borrowed from constitution of U.S.A.

Question 30.
List out the fundamental duties of Indain Citizens.
Answer:
The 42^nd amendment has incorporated a number of fundamental duties.

1. Abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the national flag and, national anthem.
2. Uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
3. Defend the country and render national service.
4. Promote common brotherhood and harmony.
5. Value and preserve our composite culture.
6. Protect the natural environment.
7. Develop the scientific temper.
8. Strive towards excellence in all sphere.

Question 31.
Write a note on the composition of Vidhan Parishad.
Answer:
The Composition of the legislative council is as follows:

• 1/3 – of the members are elected from the local bodies such as municipalities and district boards;
• 1/3 – of the members are elected from members of Legislative Assembly;
• 1/12 – of the members are elected by the graduates from graduate constituencies.
• 1/12 – of the members are elected from teacher’s constituencies consisting of secondary- school, college and university- teachers and
• 1/6- of the members are nominated by’ the Governor from the fields of science, art, social service, co-operative movement, literature, etc

Question 32.
Explain the power and functions of Chief Minister of the state.
Answer:
The functions of the Chief Minister is so powerful that he is referred to as “the first among equals” (Primus intersperes). Article 164 of the constitution states that “there shall be a Council of ministers headed by the Chief Minister for the state”.

The Chief Minister is elected from among the members of the majority party in Vidhana sabha. In case no party enjoys majority it is left to the discretion of the Governor to pick the Chief Minister, who in his opinion will prove majority in a stipulated time. Traditionally, the Chief Minister should be from the Vidhana Sabha.

1. Formation of Ministry:
The primary task of the Chief Minister on assuming office is the formation of Council of ministers. Normally ministers are picked from the same political formation to ensure uniformity and continuity of policy. However nothing prevents the Chief Minister from picking anyone as minister from any party. The Chief Minister enjoys the authority to pick and choose his ministry because he is responsible for efficiency and performance of the government.

2. Allocation of Portfolios:
After forming the ministry the next important task is allocation of responsibilities to ministers. Certain key or heavyweight portfolios such Home, Revenue, Finance, Industry, Public works are to be given to key and heavyweights who enjoy clout and following among party workers. Also to ensure efficiency and stability of the government. The Chief Minister enjoys the power of expanding and reforming the ministry.

3. Chairman of the Cabinet:
The cabinet meetings are held under the chairmanship of the Chief Minister. The cabinet is a deliberating forum and differences may come up. It is the responsibility of the Chief Minister to mediate and soften things and arrive at decisions. The Chief Minister has the authority to decide the matters to be taken up by the cabinet and may accept or reject proposals.

Normally the proposals brought by ministers for discussion are not rejected. In the era of coalition politics, it is a challenge for the Chief Minister to hold the flock together. It is very difficult to chair a cabinet meeting full of divergent views, ideologies, and principles.

4. Leader of Vidhana Sabha:
Chief Minister is the leader of Vidhana sabha. All major decisions and announcements of the state government are made by the Chief Minister. It is the responsibility of the Chief Minister to ensure that all bills brought before Vidhana sabha for approval are passed.

And he has to defend the government on the floor of the house. Though ministers are individually responsible to their ministries, it is the Chief minister who provides general leadership and direction. If any minister makes a mistake, the Chief Minister has the power to guide and correct him.

5. Leader of the Government: The decisions of the government however good, are subjected to scrutiny and criticism. The opposition parties lose their identity if they do not criticize the government. So to guard against it, the Chief Minister, as leader of the government has to defend policies and programmes of the government both in and out of legislature.

6. Co-ordination and Supervision:
In running the administrative machinery Chief Minister will have to encounter numerous problems ranging from routine to serious. Under the circumstances, it is essential to integrate different departments and see that they work smoothly and the ability of the Chief Minister is tested on this count.

A Chief Minister should not only pick a team but also retain it as a team till the end of the term. Whenever problems arise between departments, he has to mediate and sort it out amicably through dialogue and goodwill.
The Chief Minister is the general head of the government. Hence he has the responsibility of supervising the administration.

Though each minister is in charge of a ministry, lack of general supervision results in poor administrative quality. To maintain quality in administration, the Chief Minister will have to supervise it, not only gives him a general feel of the administration but also makes the ministers more responsible. The Chief Minister may correct the working of a particular ministry and offer suggestions.

7. Bridge between the Governor and the State Legislature:
The Chief Minister acts as a link between the Governor and state legislature in a parliamentary government. As all executive powers are vested in the hands of the Crovemor, the Chief Minister is duty-bound to keep the Governor informed about the decisions taken by the government.

Also, the Governor himself can call for any information from the government. The Chief Minister not only acts as a bridge but also as the advisor to the President. Whenever necessary the President will look forward for advice. For example, the Governor seeks the advice L of the Chief Minister before dissolving Vidhana sabha.

8. Power of Dissolution:
The Vidhana sabha exists as long as the Chief Minister wishes because even before the expiry of 5 years term, Chief Minister may seek the dissolution of Vidhana sabha. The Vidhana sabha may be dissolved if deep differences surfaced within the government or within the ruling party or the government loses a motion of no confidence.

9. Power of Appointment:
Though civil appointments are made by the Governor, it is based on recommendation of the Chief Minister.

Question 33.
Discuss the importance of Judiciary.
Answer:
The President of India appoints the judges of the Supreme court on the advice of the council of ministers in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. Article 124 which deals with the appointment of judges, makes it obligatory on the part of the President of India to consult the Chief Justice of India.

In appointing the Chief Justice of India, the President shall, besides the advice of the council of ministers, consult the judges of the Supreme Court and the High courts if he considers it necessary. But, neither the constitution nor the law provides for Chief Justice’s recommendation as to his successor.

It is a practice sanctioned by convention. Normally, the Chief Justice of India is appointed from among the senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.

The following are the powers of the Supreme Court:
1. Original Jurisdiction:
Article 131 of the constitution deals with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is so exclusive that no court in India can take up cases falling under the original jurisdiction.
The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is purely federal in character. Matters relating to the problems and disputes arising between the union and the states or between the states are taken up by the Supreme Court.

The disputes entertained under the original jurisdiction are:

• A dispute involving the Government of India Vs the state of Union of India.
• A dispute involving the Government of India plus one or more states Vs one or more states.
• A dispute involving one or more states on one side Vs one or more states on the other.

2. Appellate Jurisdiction:
The Supreme Court is the highest court in India. Under Appellate jurisdiction, the Supreme court only takes up such cases that come on appeal. It has no power to take up such cases, which it is not asked to take up.

The appellate jurisdiction can be studied under the following three heads:
a. Constitutional Cases:
The cases that come before the Supreme court are as follows:
The cases involving a question of law relating to the interpretation of the constitution or certification by the High court. The Supreme Court can take up a case if the High court in its opinion feels that the case involves substantial question of law, which should be decided by the Supreme court.

b. Civil Cases :
Originally Article 133 provided for an appeal against the high court order if it certified that the amount involved was less than Rs. 20,000 and the case is fit for appeal. But, the Law Commission found the logic unreasonable and as a result, the 30th Amendment of 1972 did away with the ceiling of Rs. 20,000.

The Supreme Court can take up the civil appeal if the High court certifies that the case involves a substantial question law of general importance. The certification by the High court is essential in these cases.

c. Criminal Cases:
Article 134 provide for an appeal to the Supreme court against the judgment of the High Court under the following conditions:

• If the High Court has reversed a decision of release of an accused and has given him a death sentence.
• In a case where the High court has exercised the authority of a lower court and given a death sentence to the accused.
• In any criminal case if the High court certifies that the case is fit for appeal in the Supreme Court.

3. Special Leave Jurisdiction:
Article 136 confers a special power in the hands of the Supreme Court to grant special leave. In hearing appeals the Supreme Court may grant Special Leave petition against any judgment or order made by any court or tribunal, except military tribunal, in a case. The decision is entirely left to the discretion of the Supreme Court. This power, however, is to be used only under exceptional circumstances like matters involving general public interest or in cases of grave injustice or cases in which no appeal is otherwise provided by law.

4. Advisory Jurisdiction:
Article 143 confers the power of advisory opinion. In order to break authoritative opinion, the President of India may seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on the matter which is, in his opinion, important and necessary such as disputes arising out of treaty of agreement.

However, the advice of the Supreme Court is purely advisory in nature and it is up to the executive to accept it or not. The Supreme Court may decline to give advisory opinion if it finds unnecessary.

5. Power of Judicial Review:
The supremacy of the Supreme Court as the guardian of the constitution is emphasized by the power of judicial review. The Supreme court has the power of declaring a law made by the legislature or executive action as ultra vires (intra vires) or null and void’ or ‘unconstitutional if it is not in tune with the provisions of the constitution or violative of the fundamental law of the land.

This acts as an effective, check on both the legislature and the executive as any decision made or action taken whimsically without regard to the constitution is declared invalid.

6. The Court of Records:
The proceedings and judgments of the Supreme Court are kept preserved to be made use of in future cases and judgments, whenever necessary by the lower courts. Those decisions are authoritative records on law whose validity cannot be questioned in any court. The courts of records also have the power to correct its own clerical errors.

7. The Contempt of court:
The Supreme Court enjoys the authority of imposing fines or imprisonment for violating the orders of the court (Article 129).

8. Self-correcting Court:
The Supreme Court has the power of correcting its own judgments. This is to ensure any loss or damage, physical, emotional or material that may be caused to any person seeking justice. To put it in legal terms, this is to ensure against ‘miscarriage of justice’.

9. Guardian of the Constitution:
The Supreme Court enjoys the privilege of protecting », the constitution against violation of its provision either by the government or by the people, It is the responsibility of the Supreme Court to see that the laws of the constitution are respected and adhered to by all in India. By acting as the watchtower of the constitution, it checks against the violation of laws.

As guardian of the constitution, the Supreme Court also exercises the power of interpreting. the contents of the constitution. Any matter relating to technical interpretation of details or definitions of terms in the constitution is the sole prerogative of the Supreme Court.

10. Enforcement of Fundamental Rights:
The Supreme Court is empowered by the constitution to act as the protector and guarantor of the fundamental rights. Under Article 32, the Supreme Court enjoys the power of issuing constitutional writs, also called as writ jurisdiction, for the enforcement of fundamental rights. The writs may be against the government or individuals.
The writs are briefly explained as follows:
a. Habeas Corpus:
This literally means ‘to have a body’. It calls upon the authority’, which arrests a person to produce in court, the person to set him free if he has done nothing wrong. It protects an individual against wrongful confinement.

b. Mandamus:
This literally means a command. It is a command issued by the court asking a person to perform his legal duty, which is of public nature.

c. Prohibition:
It is a writ issued by the Supreme court to an inferior court restraining it from exercising powers which is not invested in them.

d. Certiorari:
It is a writ by which a case is removed from a lower court, which does note no jurisdiction to deal with it.

e. Quo warranto:
This writ is issued to prevent a person from illegally occupying a ’ public office to which he is not entitled.

11. Defender of the Federation: The constitution vests the power of settling the disputes and problems between the centre and the states. In order to prevent the conflict of power between the two, the Supreme Court interprets the laws, which help in maintaining the unity of the federation.

12. Miscellaneous functions:
The following are the miscellaneous functions of the Supreme

1. The Supreme Court has the power of regulating the practice and procedure of the court.
2. It appoints its own clerical establishment and exercises supervision over lower courts.
3. The Supreme Court decides matters relating to the election of the President and Vice-president.
4. The Supreme Court if satisfied, may withdraw a case on its own or on appeal pending before one or more High courts on a matter involving substantial question of law of general importance (Article 139)
5. The Supreme Court, if necessary, can transfer any case pending before any High
   court to any other High court.
6. The Supreme Court may also transfer a criminal case from one high court to the

Question 34.
Explain the power and functions of Mahanagara Palika. .
Answer:
Functions of corporation:
The functions of corporation may be broadly classified into 3 groups: ,

• General functions
• Compulsory functions
• Optional functions

1. General functions:
The 1976 Act stipulates certain general functions to the corporation. These functions are routine in nature. Management of administration of the corporation Preparation of budget Seek approval of budget

2. Compulsory Functions:
The corporation is duty-bound to perform certain functions designated as compulsory. Following are the compulsory functions of corporation:

• Construction and conservation of public roads and streets.
• Providing electricity to public roads, streets and markets
• Making arrangements for conservancy, drainage and removal of garbage.
• Providing of safe drinking water and water for other purposes.
• Naming and numbering of roads.
• Construction and maintenance of pubic markets.
• Prevent diseases through effective public health system
• Control over construction of buildings through effective clearance system.
• Prevent adulteration of food products , milk and pharmaceuticals.
• Registaration and maintenance of birth and death records.
• Establishment and maintenance of primary schools.
• Planting and conservation of saplings
• Construction and maintenance of public gardens and play grounds.
• Construction and maintenance of burial grounds.
• Protection of public property and public monuments.

3. Optional functions:

Optional functions are discretionary in nature. They can be undertaken only if the time and money permit. The following are the optional functions of the corporations.

• Establishment of an efficient transport system.
• Establish associations for the welfare of orphans and the destitute.
• Establishment and maintenance of child welfare centers.
• Construction and conservation of swimming pools and bathing Ghats.
• Conduct surveys of land and buildings
• Construction and maintenance of museums, art galleries, and gardens with district plants.
• Establishment and maintenance of hospitals for animals
• Raise money for providing relief during natural calamities such as earthquake, drought, etc.,
• Improve slums by developing them.
• Construct houses for the poor, homeless and the destitute.
• Construction and maintenance of water troughs for animals.
• Support environment conservation programmes through planting trees etc.

IV. Answer any two of the following in 30 to 40 sentences each: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 35.
Explain the meaning and importance of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Importance of a constitution to the state is discussed below:
1. Outlines the goals of state:
No state can progress and prosper, however rich and wealthy if it does not possess clear cut aims and objectives. A constitution details the path to be followed by a state in accomplishing its objectives thereby living up to the aims and objectives of its people.

2. Regulates behavior of people:
The constitution provides for basic guidelines or a reasonable code of conduct which helps create a civil and civilized society. A constitution is very important in harmonizing relationship between and among numerous sections of people.

3. Control over authority of the government:
The government derives its power from the constitution and is bound to abide by provisions of the constitution. No government can take law into its hand and deal whimsically.

4. Establishes ruler ruled relationship:
The people and government are like two faces of the same coin. A state can succeed only if people and government share mutual trust and co-operation. The constitution should avoid any kind of needless friction between the governor and the governed.

5. A guide to future generations:
A constitution is often referred to as the mirror of a state which reflects the basic ambitions and aspirations of a state. By acting as a standard of reference it guides future generations to make necessary changes based on the existing structure.

Question 36.
Write the power and functions of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The members of Lok Sabha are elected by the people. All adult citizens unless disqualified for other reasons have the right to select their representatives. Qualifications to become the members are must be a citizen of the country and must have attained the minimum age fixed by the constitution. The term of office is five years. Speaker is the presiding officer. He is elected from among the members of the house.

The powers and functions of Lok Sabha are as follows:
1. Legislative functions:
The power of Loksabha extends to all subjects falling under the Union list and the Concurrent list. In case of emergency in operation, its power also extends to State list as well. No bill can become a law without the consent of Loksabha. The Loksabha has equal powers of law making with Rajyasabha except on financial matters where the supremacy of Loksabha is total.

In case of disagreement between the two houses on a matter of legislation, it is resolved by a Joint Sitting of both the houses presided over by the Speaker. In a Joint Sitting, Loksabha would emerge triumphant because the decisions are taken by a majority of the total number of members of both the house present and voting in which the numerical superiority of Loksabha prevails.

2. Financial functions:
On financial matters, the supremacy of the Loksabha is total and complete. “One, who holds purse, holds power” said James Madison. By establishing its authority over the national purse, Loksabha establishes its authority over the Rajyasabha.

It is expressly stated that Money bill can originate only in the house of people. Regarding budget, Loksabha being a representative house enjoys total authority. Loksabha’s position on financial matters is such that the demands for grants are placed only before the Loksabha.

3. Control over the executive:
The Loksabha enjoys direct control over the executive because; executive is directly responsible to the lower house and stays in office as long as it enjoys the confidence of the house. The Loksabha not only makes laws but also supervises the implementation. The lower house being a debating house, the members are free to seek information from the executive and raise questions and seek clarifications.

The members can effectively seek information from the government by way of discussions and debates during the Question Hour (seek clarification), the Adjournment Motion (raises issues of national importance), the Zero Hour, the Cu motion, the Call-attention motion, etc. The soundest way of controlling the executive is by way of moving the No-confidence motion, if the executive fails to win the support of Lok sabha, they must step down.

4. Constituent functions:
The Loksabha shares equal powers in regard to amending provisions of the constitution. An amendment may be initiated either in the Rajyasabha or Loksabha and must be passed by a 2/3 majority in both the houses present and voting. The agreement of Rajyasabha is compulsory for the success of constitutional amendment.

5. Electoral functions:
The Loksabha and Rajyasabha elect the highest constitutional functionaries such as the President and the Vice-president. The President is elected by the members of Loksabha and Rajyasabha along with the members of Legislative Assemblies of the states. The Vice-president is elected by members of Loksabha and Rajyasabha.

6. Judicial functions:
The Loksabha acts as a judge in the impeachment of the President. Either house can prefer the charge of impeachment. If. Rajyasabha prefers the charge, Loksabha investigates the charge and if it passes a resolution by a 2/3 majority of the total membership of the house. President stands impeached from the office.

The Loksabha also sits in Judgement, along with the Rajyasabha, in removing high constitutional functionaries such as the Comptroller and Auditor General, The Chief Vigilance Commissioner, the Chief Election Commissioner, etc.

Question 37.
Explain the power and functions of President of India.
Answer:
In the Parliamentary government, the position of the President is that of a respectful figure-head, representing the honor and dignity of the people of India. It has become a fashion to ¦ label the President as ‘ a rubber stamp’, the impression is that he does nothing but signing bills brought before him. But there are occasions that offer scope for independent decisions.

When no party enjoys a majority, the power to appoint Prime minister rests with the President (Article 75). In case of sudden demise of Prime minister, if the party fails to elect its leader, at the earliest, President may appoint a person of his choice as the Prime minister. Importantly, if a government loses majority and recommends for the dissolution of the house (Lok Sabha), it is pure power of the President to dissolve the parliament or not (Article 85).

The powers and functions of the President are as follows:
a. Legislative Functions:
The legislative functions are detailed below:
1. To summon, prorogue and dissolve the Parliament.

2. The President enjoys the power to address the Parliament. It is normally done after general elections or the first session of the year. It is generally called Presidential speech. This inaugural speech outlines the objectives and priorities of the government.

3. In passing the bills, if a deadlock arises due to non-agreement between two houses . of the parliament, the President may call for joint session of both the houses.

4. The President may address Lok sabha or Rajya sabha or both any time and also may send a message to both the houses of parliament to look into a bill. In the considered view of the President, if he is satisfied that the Anglo-Indian community is not adequately represented, he may nominate 12 members to Rajya Sabha and 2 members to Lok sabha.

5. Prior permission of the President is essential while dealing with bills relating to formation of new’ states, alteration of boundaries and some special bills like the finance bills.

6. No bill can become a law without the assent of the President. He enjoys the power to withhold a bill. This power is called ‘Veto power”. However, he cannot refuse his assent for finance bills. But he can withhold assent for a nonmoney bill. But if the same is resubmitted for signature even without changes, he cannot refuse to sign it.

7. The President enjoys the power of issuing Ordinance when the parliament is not in session. It will have the same power and effect similar to that of a law made by the Parliament provided the same is ratified by the Parliament within 6 weeks of its passage. Otherwise, it ceases to be a law and is considered null and void or zero.

b. Executive Functions:
The President is the administrative Head of the State and orders are executed in his name. Article 53 clearly states that ‘the executive powers of the State must be vested in ‘ the hands of the President’.
1. All accords and agreements carried out on behalf of the Government of India is done in the name of the President.

2. The President has the power to call for any information from the government.

3. The President appoints the Prime minister and the Council of minister on recommendation of the Prime minister.

4. The highest constitutional functionaries such as Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), Chief Election Commissioner (CEC), ChiefVigilance Commissioner (CVC) are appointed by the President.

5. The member of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), National Human Right Commission (NHRC), Backward Class Commission (BCC) and National Commission for Women (NCW) are appointed by the President.

6. The President enjoys the power of removing highest constitutional functionaries.

7. The President can call for reports from Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Commission, Linguistic Minorities Commission (LMC), Backward Class Commission (BCC) and other commissions..

c. Financial powers:
1. It is the constitutional obligation of President to see that the annual income-expenditure statement. Budget is placed before the Parliament for approval.

2. Financial bills cannot be presented in the Parliament without the consent of the President.

3. The recommendation of the Finance Commissions and the Planning Commission are placed before the Parliament on orders of the President.

4. The members of the Finance Commission and Planning Commission are appointed by the President.

d. Judicial Powers:
1. The President enjoys the power of pardoning the sentence of a person declared an offender by the Supreme Court. He is so powerful that he can reduce change or altogether cancel the punishment. This power is called Presidential Pardon. This is provided to ensure against any miscarriage of justice (Article 72).

2. The Judges of the Supreme Court and High court are appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.

3. The President is entitled to legal advice on matters relating to the constitutional clarity of bills. However it is not binding on the President to accept it.

e. Military Powers:

1. President is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces.
2. President has the power to declare war or peace, but parliamentary approval is essential for such a decision.
3. The President can raise funds for training and preservation of armed forces with prior approval of the Parliament.
4. The Chiefs of Army, Navy, and Air force are appointed by the President.

f. Diplomatic Powers:
The diplomatic powers of the President are purely symbolic in nature.

1. The President represents the country in international affairs. His visits are of courtesy nature aimed at strengthening bilateral relations; he does not sign any treaties or agreements.
2. The ambassadors representing the country abroad are appointed by the President.
3. The foreign ambassadors are received by the President. No person can be considered an ambassador unless he is given the ‘Letter of Accreditation’ by the president.

g. Emergency Powers:
The emergency powers of the President are enumerated in the constitution from Article 352 to Article 360. The President may declare emergency under three circumstances:

1. The President may declare internal emergency under Article 352, if, in his opinion, there is a threat to India’s security due to war or external aggression.

2. The President may impose ‘President’s Rule’ under Article 356 if he is convinced that in that particular state the law and order has completely deteriorated and it cannot be governed as per the constitution. Though the President’s rule is imposed on the recommendation of the governor of the concerned state, it is not compulsory.

3. If the President is convinced that the financial stability and prestige of the nation is at risk, he may impose financial emergency under Article 360. However, the imposition of internal and financial emergency should be placed before Parliament and its consent taken within 2 months of declaration of emergency, otherwise it is considered invalid.

Question 38.
Discuss the Composition and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
The President of India appoints the judges of the Supreme court on the advice of the council of ministers in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. Article 124 which deals with the appointment of judges, makes it obligatory on the part of the President of India to consult the Chief Justice of India.

In appointing the Chief Justice of India, the President shall, besides the advice of the council of ministers, consult the judges of the Supreme Court and the High courts if he considers it necessary. But, neither the constitution nor the law provides for Chief Justice’s recommendation as to his successor. It is a practice sanctioned by convention.
Normally, the Chief Justice of India is appointed from among the senior most judges of the Supreme Court.

The following are the powers of the Supreme Court:
1. Original Jurisdiction:
Article 131 of the constitution deals with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is so exclusive that no court in India can take up cases falling under the original jurisdiction.
The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is purely federal in character. Matters relating to the problems and disputes arising between the union and the states or between the states are taken up by the Supreme Court.

The disputes entertained under the original jurisdiction are:

• A dispute involving the Government of India Vs the state of Union of India.
• A dispute involving the Government of India plus one or more states Vs one or more states.
• A dispute involving one or more states on one side Vs one or more states on the other.

2. Appellate Jurisdiction:
The Supreme Court is the highest court in India. Under Appellate jurisdiction, the Supreme court only takes up such cases that come on appeal. It has no power to take up such cases, which it is not asked to take up.

The appellate jurisdiction can be studied under the following three heads:
a. Constitutional Cases:
The cases that come before the Supreme court are as follows:
The cases involving a question of law relating to the interpretation of the constitution or certification by the High court. The Supreme Court can take up a case, if the High court in its opinion feels that the case involves substantial question of law, which should be decided by the Supreme court.

b. Civil Cases :
Originally Article 133 provided for an appeal against the high court order if it certified that the amount involved was less than Rs. 20,000 and the case is fit for appeal. But, the Law Commission found the logic unreasonable and as a result, the 30th Amendment of 1972 did away with the ceiling of Rs. 20,000.

The Supreme Court can take up the civil appeal, if the High court certifies that the case involves a substantial question law of general importance. The certification by the High court is essential in these cases.

c. Criminal Cases:
Article 134 provide for an appeal to the Supreme court against the judgment of the High Court under the following conditions:

1. If the High Court has reversed a decision of release of an accused and has given him a death sentence.
2. In a case where the High court has exercised the authority of a lower court and given a death sentence to the accused.
3. In any criminal case if the High court certifies that the case is fit for appeal in the Supreme Court.

3. Special Leave Jurisdiction:
Article 136 confers a special power in the hands of the Supreme Court to grant special Leave. In hearing appeals the Supreme Court may grant Special Leave petition against any judgment or order made by any court or tribunal, except military tribunal, in a case. The decision is entirely left to the discretion of the Supreme Court.

This power, however, is to be used only under exceptional circumstances like matters involving general public interest or in cases of grave injustice or cases in which no appeal is otherwise provided by law.

4. Advisory Jurisdiction:
Article 143 confers the power of advisory opinion. In order to break authoritative opinion, the President of India may seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on the matter which is, in his opinion, important and necessary such as disputes arising out of treaty of agreement.

However, the advice of the Supreme Court is purely advisory in nature and it is up to the executive to accept it or not. The Supreme Court may decline to give advisory opinion if it finds unnecessary.

5. Power of Judicial Review:
The supremacy of the Supreme Court as the guardian of the constitution is emphasized by the power of judicial review. The Supreme court has the power of declaring a law made by the legislature or executive action as ultra vires (intra vires) or null and void’ or ‘unconstitutional if it is not in tune with the provisions of the constitution or violative of the fundamental law of the land.

This acts as an effective, check on both the legislature and the executive as any decision made or action taken whimsically without regard to the constitution is declared invalid.

6. The Court of Records:
The proceedings and judgments of the Supreme Court are kept preserved to be made use of in future cases and judgments, whenever necessary by the lower courts. Those decisions are authoritative records on law whose validity cannot be questioned in any court. The courts of records also have the power to correct its own clerical errors.

7. The Contempt of court:
The Supreme Court enjoys the authority of imposing fine or imprisonment for violating the orders of the court (Article 129).

8. Self-correcting Court:
The Supreme Court has the power of correcting its own judgments. This is to ensure any loss or damage, physical, emotional or material that may be caused to any person seeking justice. To put it in legal terms, this is to ensure against ‘miscarriage of justice’.

9. Guardian of the Constitution:
The Supreme Court enjoys the privilege of protecting », the constitution against violation of its provision either by the government or by the people, It is the responsibility of the Supreme Court to see that the laws of the constitution are respected and adhered to by all in India. By acting as the watchtower of the constitution, it checks against the violation of laws.

As guardian of the constitution, the Supreme Court also exercises the power of interpreting. the contents of the constitution. Any matter relating to technical interpretation of details or definitions of terms in the constitution is the sole prerogative of the Supreme Court.

10. Enforcement of Fundamental Rights:
The Supreme Court is empowered by the constitution to act as the protector and guarantor of the fundamental rights. Under Article 32, the Supreme Court enjoys the power of issuing constitutional writs, also called as writ jurisdiction, for the enforcement of fundamental rights. The writs may be against the government or individuals.
The writs are briefly explained as follows:
a. Habeas Corpus:
This literally means ‘to have a body’. It calls upon the authority’, which arrests a person to produce in court, the person to set him free if he has done nothing wrong. It protects an individual against wrongful confinement.

b. Mandamus:
This literally means a command. It is a command issued by the court asking a person to perform his legal duty, which is of public nature.

c. Prohibition:
It is a writ issued by the Supreme court to an inferior court restraining it from exercising powers which is not invested in them.

d. Certiorari:
It is a writ by which a case is removed from a lower court, which does no enjoy jurisdiction to deal with it.

e. Quo warranto:
This writ is issued to prevent a person from illegally occupying a ’ public office to which he is not entitled.

11.Defender of the Federation:
The constitution vests the power of settling the disputes and problems between the centre and the states. In order to prevent the conflict of power between the two, the Supreme Court interprets the laws, which help in maintaining the unity of the federation.

12. Miscellaneous functions:
The following are the miscellaneous functions of the Supreme

• The Supreme Court has the power of regulating the practice and procedure of the court.
• It appoints its own clerical establishment and exercises supervision over lower courts.
• The Supreme Court decides matters relating to the election of the President and Vice-president.
• The Supreme Court if satisfied, may withdraw a case on its own or on appeal pending before one or more High courts on a matter involving substantial question of law of general importance (Article 139)
• The Supreme Court, if necessary, can transfer any case pending before any High court to any other High court.
• The Supreme Court may also transfer a criminal case from one high court to the

IV. Answer any Two of the following in 15-20 sentences each: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 39.
Write a note on anyone freedom fighter’s achievement.

OR

Explain the kinds of Equality.
Answer:
1. Natural Equality:
Implies that nature has created all men equal. It can also be defined that it insists on removing all man-made and artificial inequalities and treat all equally.

2. Civil and legal Equality:
Implies that all are equal before law and all are protected equally irrespective of caste, class, colour, race, etc.,

3. Political Equality:
Implies that all the citizens, irrespective any type of difference are entitled to participate in the affairs of state. All have equal voice in the government. It is based on principle of universal adult Franchise.

4. Economic Equality:
Implies removal of inequalities based on wealth and insists on certain > minimum standard of income to all to meet their basic needs.

5. Social Equality:
Implies every individual without any discrimination must be given equal opportunity for the development of their personalities.

Question 40.
Explain the features of Dictatorial Government.
Answer:
1. Absolute power:
Dictatorship is characterized by absolute power where the dictator controls the constitution. He can make and unmake laws. All the laws must originate from him and there is neither a limit on his tenure nor is he subjected to any other authority.

2. Based on Force:
Dictatorship stands on the twin pillars of force and coercion. The word of the dictator should be honored in letter and spirit. Any violation of the order may result in severe punishment or even death.

3. Totalitarian state:
Dictatorial regimes regulate and control all aspects of human existence. It provides security, basic necessities such as food, shelter and clothing, education and order in the society. In totalitarian state’s individual personality is suppressed and all aspects of an individual is regimented and brought under the control of the state.

The totalitarian approach is well summarized by Mussolini when he says “Everything within the state, nothing above the state, nothing outside the State’. Thus, State is the central point around which all human activities must revolve.

4. One Nation one party:
In a dictatorship, for the whole state, there is only one constitution and the administration is managed by one single party and that is responsible for the whole state. Any kind of criticism of the party or the leadership is not tolerated. The distinct feature of dictatorship is its intolerance to criticism and new ideas.

5. No individual liberty:
In a dictatorship, individual freedom and liberty do not find place. Freedom of thought and expression is restricted.

OR

Write a note on ‘Republic day’ celebrated in your college.