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1st PUC Hindi Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

January 3, 2025

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Karnataka 1st PUC Hindi Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

समय : ३ घंटे १५ मिनट]
कुल अंक : १००

सूचना :

सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर हिन्दी भाषा तथा देवनागरी लिपि में लिखना आवश्यक है।
प्रश्नों की क्रमसंख्या लिखना अनिवार्य है।

I. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 1.
बेनीमाधव सिंह किस गाँव के जमींदार थे?

प्रश्न 2.
लेखक के मन में किसके प्रति मैल नहीं रहा?

प्रश्न 3.
‘बिन्दा’ रेखाचित्र की लेखिका कौन है?

प्रश्न 4.
दिल के दौरा का प्रमुख लक्षण क्या है?

प्रश्न 5.
उम्मीदवारों में कौन अधिक संख्या में थे?

प्रश्न 6.
राष्ट्र का तीसरा अंग कौनसा है?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (3 × 3 = 9)

प्रश्न 7.
स्वदेश भक्ति के बारे में स्वामी विवेकानंद जी का आदर्श क्या है?

प्रश्न 8.
अंबेडकर ने पीड़ित समाज के उद्धार के लिए क्या-क्या किया?

प्रश्न 9.
निन्दकों के संघ के बारे में लिखिए।

प्रश्न 10.
चैयरमन साहब के बँगले पर का दृश्य प्रस्तुत कीजिए।

प्रश्न 11.
वैद्य परमानन्द गाय की बीमारी दूर करने का क्या उपाय बताते हैं?

II. अ) निम्नलिखित वाक्य किसने किससे कहे? (1 × 4 = 4)

प्रश्न 12.
बहू-बेटियों का यह स्वभाव अच्छा नहीं कि मर्दो के मुँह लगे।

प्रश्न 13.
अभागी मरती भी नहीं।

प्रश्न 14.
‘अरे बिच्छू-बिच्छू।

प्रश्न 15.
घबराइए मत। आँखें मत खोलिए, आप शेर से लड़िए।

आ) निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं दो का ससंदर्भ स्पष्टीकरण कीजिए: (3 × 2 = 6)

प्रश्न 16.
‘पर तुमने आजकल घर में क्या उपद्रव मचा रखा है?’

प्रश्न 17.
‘तब क्या उस घर में विवाह हो रहा है, और हो रहा है तो किसका?’

प्रश्न 18.
‘यह मार्ग अपेक्षाकृत भयानक है, इसलिए इसका सौंदर्य भी अभी अछूता है।’

प्रश्न 19.
‘भूमि माता है, मैं उसका पुत्र हूँ।’

III. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 20.
तुलसीदास के अनुसार कौन से दो बीज हैं?

प्रश्न 21.
अल्लमप्रभु देव के आराध्य कौन थे?

प्रश्न 22.
तट पर आकर कौन पानी पीते हैं?

प्रश्न 23.
कवि बच्चन जी किसके कंठों से दर्द की आवाज सुनते हैं?

प्रश्न 24.
चित्रकार ने किसको समेट लिया है?

प्रश्न 25.
वीर काँटों को क्या समझता है?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए: (3 × 2 = 6)

प्रश्न 26.
मीराबाई ने उनके ऊपर हुए अनाचारों का वर्णन कैसे किया है?

प्रश्न 27.
‘तोड़ती पत्थर’ कविता का सारांश अपने शब्दों में लिखिए?

प्रश्न 28.
बच्चन जी पाठकों को क्या-क्या भेंट देते हैं?

प्रश्न 29.
नारी के विभिन्न गुणों का परिचय दीजिए।

इ) ससंदर्भ भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए: (4 × 2 = 8)

प्रश्न 30.
निंदक नियरे राखिये, आँगन कुटी छबाय।
बिन पानी, साबुन बिना निर्मल करै सुभाय ॥
अथवा
मोर-पखा सिर ऊपर राखिहौं, गुंज की माला गरें पहिरौंगी।
ओढ़ि पितम्बर लै लंकुटी बन, गोधन ग्वारनि संग फिरौंगी॥
भावतो वोहि मेरो ‘रसखानि’, सो तेरे कहें सब स्वांग करौंगी।
या मुरली मुरलीधर की, अधरान-धरी अधरा न धरौंगी॥

प्रश्न 31.
मैं हूँ प्रेममयी, जग दिखता
मुझे प्रेम का पारावार।
भरा प्रेम से मेरा जीवन,
लुट रहा है निर्मल प्यार ॥
अथवा
तुम देवलोक आनंद गीत-आशा अखण्ड शोभा परीत
मैं स्नेह विकल झंकृत प्रगीत-तुम आओ मन के मुग्ध मीत ॥

IV. अ) एक शब्द या वाक्यांश या वाक्य में उत्तर लिखिए : (1 × 6 = 6)

प्रश्न 32.
कहानी सुनने का शौक किसको था?

प्रश्न 33.
‘श्मशान’ कहानी की लेखिका कौन है?

प्रश्न 34.
थाली में चाँदी के कितने चम्मच रखे हुए थे?

प्रश्न 35.
भीख माँगना किसी भी व्यक्ति के लिए क्या है?

प्रश्न 36.
सिलिया की सहेली का नाम लिखिए।

प्रश्न 37.
रामचंद्र की पढ़ाई कहाँ तक हुई थी?

आ) निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिएः (3 × 3 = 9)

प्रश्न 38.
शराबी पात्र का चरित्र-चित्रण कीजिए।

प्रश्न 39.
श्मशान ने आह भरकर पहाडी से क्या कहा?

प्रश्न 40.
‘खून का रिश्ता’ कहानी के उद्देश्य पर प्रकाश डालिए।

प्रश्न 41.
चन्द्रप्रकाश का चरित्र-चित्रण कीजिए।

प्रश्न 42.
सिलिया ने अपने संकल्प को किस प्रकार साकार किया?

प्रश्न 43.
बीमार प्रमोद की हालत कैसी थी?

V. अ) वाक्य शुद्ध कीजिए: (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 44.
क) सभी उसको तारीफ करते हैं।
उत्तरः
सभी उसकी तारीफ करते हैं।

ख) मोहन की पिताजी अस्वस्थ्य हैं।
उत्तरः
मोहन के पिताजी अस्वस्थ हैं।

ग) सुभाषचंद्र बोस महान नेता था।
उत्तरः
सुभाषचंद्र बोस महान नेता थे।

घ) बकरी ने बाघिन को देखी।
उत्तरः
बकरी ने बाघिन को देखा।

ङ) मैं किताब पढ़कर के ही उढूँगा।
उत्तरः
मैं किताब पढ़कर ही उदूंगा।

आ) कोष्टक में दिये गये उचित कारक चिन्हों से रिक्त स्थान भरिएः (पर, में, के, का, से) (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 45.
क) देवदारू ……… पेड़ भी इधर बहुत है।
ख) उसे पद ……. हटा दिया गया।
ग) चुल्हें ……… चढ़ाया दूध उफना जा रहा था।
घ) वह घर ……….. नहीं है।
ङ) उसकी बहन ……… नाम मालती है।
उत्तरः
क – के; ख – से; ग – पर; घ – में; ङ – का।

इ) निम्नलिखित मुहावरों को अर्थ के साथ जोड़कर लिखिएः (1 × 4 = 4)

प्रश्न 46
1) आँख से ओझल होना – क) कृपादृष्टि न रखना।
2) आँखों में रात काटना – ख) नेत्र ज्योती समाप्त होना।
3) आँख बदल जाना – ग) नजर से दूर होना।
4) आँखें बैठना – घ) चिन्ता या व्यग्रता में रात बिताना।
उत्तरः
1 – ग; 2 – घ; 3 – क; 4 – ख।

ई) निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को सूचनानुसार बदलिए: (1 × 3 = 3)

प्रश्न 47.
क) वह एक छाता खरीद लेगा। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
वह एक छाता खरीद रहा है।

ख) गर्मियों में बाहर गली में सोना पड़ेगा। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
गर्मियों में बाहर गली में सोना पड़ा।

ग) तरकारी भी लौकी की ही बन गई। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
उत्तरः
तरकारी भी लौकी की ही बनने वाली हैं।

उ) अन्य लिंग रूप लिखिए: (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 48
ग्वाला, बुद्धिमती।
उत्तरः
ग्वालिन, बुद्धिमान।

ऊ) अन्य वचन रूप लिखिए: (1 × 2 = 2

प्रश्न 49.
मछली, केला।
उत्तरः
मछलियाँ, केले।

ए) समानार्थक शब्द लिखिए : (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 50.
आभूषण, शरीर।
उत्तरः
गहना, देह।

ऐ) विलोम शब्द लिखिए : (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 51.
समर्थ, आधार।
उत्तरः
असमर्थ, निराधार।

VI. अ) निम्नलिखित अनुच्छेद पढ़कर उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिएः (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 52.
विनय का अभाव एक प्रकार का खोखलापन प्रकट करता है। जिन लोगों में कोई श्लाघनीय गुण नहीं होता, वे अपनी ऐंठ और डाँट-फटकार से लोगों पर प्रभाव जमाते हैं, किंतु गुणवानों को इनकी आवश्यकता नहीं। उनका प्रभाव तो स्वतः सिद्ध है। यदि विनयशील मनुष्य का समाज में प्रभाव थोड़ा हो, तो विनयशील मनुष्य का दोष नहीं; यह समाज का दोष है। इसके अतिरिक्त प्रेम का प्रभाव चाहे थोड़ा हो, पर दबाव के प्रभाव की अपेक्षा, वह चिरस्थायी होता है। यदि थोड़ी देर के लिए मान भी लिया जाए कि विनय सब स्थानों में काम नहीं देती – जैसे शत्रु के सम्मुख, तथापि हमें वह कहना पड़ेगा कि विनयशील पुरुष को ऐसे अवसर कम आएँगे कि जब अपनी विनय के कारण दुखद अनुभव करना पडे। विनय के साथ निरभिमानता, मानव जाति का आदर, सहनशीलता, धैर्य आदि अनेक सद्गुण लगे हुए हैं।

प्रश्नः

विनय का अभाव एक प्रकार से क्या प्रकट करता हैं?
श्लाघनीय गुण न होने से लोग क्या करते है?
विनय किस स्थान पर काम नहीं देता?
उपर्युक्त गद्यांश को उचित शीर्षक दीजिए।
विनय के साथ जुड़े अन्य सद्गुण कौन-से हैं?

उत्तरः

विनय का अभाव एक प्रकार का खोखलापन प्रकट करता हैं।
वे अपनी ऐंठ और डाँट-फटकार से लोगों पर प्रभाव जमाते हैं।
विनय शत्रु के सम्मुख काम नहीं देता।
विनय का जीवन में महत्व’ / ‘विनयशीलता’।
विनय के साथ निराभिमानता, मानव जाति का आदर, सहनशीलता, धैर्य आदि अनेक सद्गुण है।

आ) पत्र लिखिएः (5 × 1 = 5)

प्रश्न 53.
बड़ी बहन के नाते अपने भाई को रक्षाबंधन के अवसर पर राखी भेजते हुए एक पत्र लिखिए।
अथवा
आर्थिक सहायता माँगते हुए अपने प्रधानाचार्य को आवेदन पत्र लिखिए।

इ) हिन्दी में अनुवाद कीजिए: (1 × 5 = 5)

प्रश्न 54.

We are living in an age of science.
उत्तरः
हम विज्ञान के युग में रह रहे हैं।

1st PUC Hindi Model Question Paper 1 with Answers img 2
Never carry petrol in plastic cans.
उत्तरः
कभी भी प्लास्टिक के डिब्बे में पेट्रोल नहीं ले जाना चाहिए।

1st PUC Hindi Model Question Paper 1 with Answers img 3
The Nile is the longest river in the world with a length of more than 6,400 km.
उत्तरः
नैल नदी, जिसकी लंबाई 6400 कि मी है, दुनिया की सबसे लंबी नदी है।

1st PUC Hindi Model Question Paper 1 with Answers img 4
Owls eat small mammals and insects.
उत्तरः
उल्लू छोटे स्तनधारी जीवों एवं कीड़ों को खाते हैं।

The battle of Talikota took place on January 23, 1565.
उत्तरः
तालिकोट की लड़ाई 23 जनवरी, 1565 को हुई थी।

1st PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (North)

January 3, 2025

Students can Download 1st PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (North), Karnataka 1st PUC Political Science Model Questions with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (North)

Time: 3:15 Hours
Max. Marks: 100

1. Answer the following questions in a sentence each: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Who is the father of Political Science?
Answer:
Aristotle.

Question 2.
Who is the author of “The Prince”?
Answer:
Nicolo Machiavelli

Question 3.
Which is the root word of Sovereignty?
Answer:
Latin word ‘Superanus’

Question 4.
Give an example of Unitary Government?
Answer:
England

Question 5.
When did the Indian Constitution came into force?
Answer:
26^th January 1950.

Question 6.
Who was the Chairman of Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Question 7.
Name the two Houses of Indian Parliament.
Answer:
Loksabha and Rajyasabha

Question 8.
What is Executive?
Answer:
An organ which implement the law is called Executive

Question 9.
Which is the final court of appeal?
Answer:
Supreme Court

Question 10.
Expand P.D.O.
Answer:
Panchayat Development Officer

II. Answer any Ten of the following questions in 2-3 sentences each. (10 × 2 = 20 )

Question 11.
Define Political Science.
Answer:
According to Garries“Political Science deals with the origin, development, purpose and all political problems of the state”.

Question 12.
Why is man a social animal?
Answer:
Man by nature is a social animal. He organized society to fulfill his needs and lead his life happily and comfortably.

Question 13.
What is welfare state?
Answer:
A state which provides the basic requirements to all the people from birth to death is called welfare state.

Question 14.
Define Liberty?
Answer:
According to GD.H Cole, “Liberty is the freedom of an individual to express without external hindrances to personality”.

Question 15.
What is written constitution? Give example.
Answer:
A written constitution is one that has been deliberately written by the Constituent Assembly ExIndia.

Question 16.
State the meaning of secular state.
Answer:
The state should treat all religions equally and provide opportunities equally is called secular sate.

Question 17.
What do you mean by adult franchise?
Answer:
All the adult citizens can exercise their voting power without the discrimination of caste, creed, colour, religion is called adult franchise

Question 18.
What is the Quoram of the house?
The business of the house cannot be conducted unless there is the requisite quorum of 1/10 of the total membership of the house is called a quorum.

Question 19.
What are the qualifications required for the president of India.
Answer:

Must be a citizen of India
Must attained the age of 35 years
Must not hold any office of profit
Must not be mad, lunatic and criminal

Question 20.
What do you mean by consumer court?
Answer:
The court which has been formed to safeguard the interests of consumer in the market is called consumer court.

Question 21.
What is Local Self Government?
Answer:
The administrative units which have been formed by the statutory law to meet the local needs fastly at the local level are called local self governments.

Question 22.
Name any two standing committees of Zilla panchayath.
Answer:

General Committee.
Social committee.

III. Answer any Eight of the following in 15 to 20 sentences each : (8 × 5 = 40)

Question 23.
Explain the cope of political science.
Answer:
1. Aristotle described political science as a ‘master science’ which made it perhaps the greatest contribution to the making of political science scientific. Hie term “Scope” refers to the subject or the boundaries of a particular branch of knowledge.

There is no perfect agreement among the political thinkers as to the problems, which come under the study of political science. Broadly speaking, there are three groups of writers holding different views on the scope of political science.

2. The first group of writers like Garies, Gamer, Goodnow, and Bluntschli restricted the scope of political science only to the study of the state.

3. The second groups of writers like Prof. Sheley and Dr. Stephen Leacock said that political science deals with government only.

4. The third groups of writers like Gettell, Gilchrist, Paul Janet, and Prof. Laski maintained that the scope of political science extends to both state and government. Prof. Laski maintains that the state, in reality, means the government.

5. We may agree with the third group of writers that political science is a study of both state and government is the steering wheel of the ship of the state. There can be no state without a government, the state remains the central subject of our study, and the whole mechanism of government revolves around it.

6. Scope according to the UNESCO; the international Political Science Association at its Paris Conference in 1948 discussed the scope of political science and marked out its subject matter
as follows:
1. Political Theory:
Political Theory, History of Political Ideas.

2. Government:
The Constitution, the Government-Regional and Local Government, Public Administration, Economic and Social functions of government, Comparative political institutions.

3. Parties, Groups and Public Opinion:
Political Parties, Group and Associations, Citizen Participation in Government and administration, Public Opinion.

4. International Relations:
International relations, International organization and Administration, International Law.

Question 24.
Explain The differences between State and Nation.
Answer:

State	Nation
1. State is Political Institution	1. Nation is Social Institution
2. The State should be a nation	2. Nation can become state
3. The state four elements such as population, territory government, and sovereignty	3. Nation has no four elements. It has Population and territory.
4. State expresses the political concept	4. Nation has internal, psychological, Spiritual concepts
5. State is limited	5. Nation is universal
6. State has sovereignty	6. Nation has no sovereignty
7. State may lose its state ship	7. Nation is permanent
8. State is Supreme	8. Nation is not supreme
9. State is organized	9. Nation has social, religious, cultural nature
10. State has the power to punish the people	10. Nation has no power to punish the people

Question 25.
Explain The features of sovereignty.
Answer:
Jean Bodin – who was the first to explain the concept of sovereignty said “Sovereignty is the supreme power over citizens and subjects unrestrained by law.”

According to Hugo Grotius “Sovereignty is the supreme power vested in him whose acts are not subjected to any other whose will can’t be can override.”

Characteristics of Sovereignty:
a. Permanent:
Sovereignty is permanent. Every state is sovereign it is accordingly permanent. The death of the rules or the change in government doesn’t mean any change in sovereign power. It comes to an end when the state is destroyed or is conquered and ruled by some external power.

b. Universality:
Sovereignty embraces each and every person and every association within the territory of the state. No individual or association in the state can disobey the sovereign authority of the state.

c. Sovereignty can’t be transfered:
The state has no right to give away its sovereignty. When a state loses or has to give up a part of the territory and population to another state, that part comes under the control of that state.

d. Indivisible:
Sovereignty can’t be divided. Division of sovereignty leads to destruction of sovereignty.

f. Absoluteness:
Sovereignty is absolute. There can be no legal power within the state, superior to it. All individuals, associations come under the absolute power of the state. The state is completely independent.

Question 26.
What are the kinds of law? Explain.
Answer:

Moral Rights
Legal Rights.
Civil Rights.
Political Rights.
Economic Rights.

Moral Rights: are those which based on the ethical code of morality of people.
Legal Rights: are recognised and protected by the state.
civil rights: are those rights which enable the individual to lead a normal life in society.
Political rights: enable a citizen to take part in the affairs of the government.
Economic rights: enable citizens to earn their living.

Question 27.
Describe essential elements of Ideal Constitution.
Answer:
The essentials of an ideal constitution are explained as below:
1. It should be definite :
An ideal constitution should not be vague but clearly narrate the provisions which relates to the organization of the government. The principles should be precise and clear.

2. It should be comprehensive:
An ideal constitution must be comprehensive enough to mention the functions of the government and rights, duties of the citizens. The constitution should not be too big but include all the information on the government.

3. Method of amendment:
An ideal constitution should possess the method of amendment. As the social condition of the people is going on change, the constitution must also undergo change. It should represent the future needs of the future generation.

4. It should correspond to reality :
An ideal constitution should correspond to the real, conditions obtained within the state, otherwise, it cannot work properly.

Question 28.
Explain the features of unwritten constitution.
Answer:
The features of unwritten constitution are explained below.

An unwritten constitution is not written by the constitution assembly but evolved over a period of time.
It is not deliberately framed by the experts but grown by customs, traditions, and usages.
An unwritten constitution has not come in to effect from a particular date.
In un written constitution the provisions with relates to the organization of the government, rights, and duties of the citizens are the fruits of customs traditions and usages.

Question 29.
Write the text of the preamble of Indian Constitution
Answer:
The preamble of the constitution of India explains the aims and ideology and reads as:
WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN, DEMOCRATIC, SOCIALIST, SECULAR and REPUBLIC Nation and securing to all its citizens.

JUSTICE- social, economic and political.
LIBERTY- of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship.
EQUALITY- of status and of opportunity and to promote among them all.
FRATERNITY- assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and the integrity of the Nation.

The idea of the preamble has been borrowed from constitution of U.S.A.

Question 30.
List out the fundamental duties of Indain Citizens.
Answer:
The 42^nd amendment has incorporated a number of fundamental duties.

Abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the national flag and, national anthem.
Uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
Defend the country and render national service.
Promote common brotherhood and harmony.
Value and preserve our composite culture.
Protect the natural environment.
Develop the scientific temper.
Strive towards excellence in all sphere.

Question 31.
Write a note on the composition of Vidhan Parishad.
Answer:
The Composition of the legislative council is as follows:

1/3 – of the members are elected from the local bodies such as municipalities and district boards;
1/3 – of the members are elected from members of Legislative Assembly;
1/12 – of the members are elected by the graduates from graduate constituencies.
1/12 – of the members are elected from teacher’s constituencies consisting of secondary- school, college and university- teachers and
1/6- of the members are nominated by’ the Governor from the fields of science, art, social service, co-operative movement, literature, etc

Question 32.
Explain the power and functions of Chief Minister of the state.
Answer:
The functions of the Chief Minister is so powerful that he is referred to as “the first among equals” (Primus intersperes). Article 164 of the constitution states that “there shall be a Council of ministers headed by the Chief Minister for the state”.

The Chief Minister is elected from among the members of the majority party in Vidhana sabha. In case no party enjoys majority it is left to the discretion of the Governor to pick the Chief Minister, who in his opinion will prove majority in a stipulated time. Traditionally, the Chief Minister should be from the Vidhana Sabha.

1. Formation of Ministry:
The primary task of the Chief Minister on assuming office is the formation of Council of ministers. Normally ministers are picked from the same political formation to ensure uniformity and continuity of policy. However nothing prevents the Chief Minister from picking anyone as minister from any party. The Chief Minister enjoys the authority to pick and choose his ministry because he is responsible for efficiency and performance of the government.

2. Allocation of Portfolios:
After forming the ministry the next important task is allocation of responsibilities to ministers. Certain key or heavyweight portfolios such Home, Revenue, Finance, Industry, Public works are to be given to key and heavyweights who enjoy clout and following among party workers. Also to ensure efficiency and stability of the government. The Chief Minister enjoys the power of expanding and reforming the ministry.

3. Chairman of the Cabinet:
The cabinet meetings are held under the chairmanship of the Chief Minister. The cabinet is a deliberating forum and differences may come up. It is the responsibility of the Chief Minister to mediate and soften things and arrive at decisions. The Chief Minister has the authority to decide the matters to be taken up by the cabinet and may accept or reject proposals.

Normally the proposals brought by ministers for discussion are not rejected. In the era of coalition politics, it is a challenge for the Chief Minister to hold the flock together. It is very difficult to chair a cabinet meeting full of divergent views, ideologies, and principles.

4. Leader of Vidhana Sabha:
Chief Minister is the leader of Vidhana sabha. All major decisions and announcements of the state government are made by the Chief Minister. It is the responsibility of the Chief Minister to ensure that all bills brought before Vidhana sabha for approval are passed.

And he has to defend the government on the floor of the house. Though ministers are individually responsible to their ministries, it is the Chief minister who provides general leadership and direction. If any minister makes a mistake, the Chief Minister has the power to guide and correct him.

5. Leader of the Government: The decisions of the government however good, are subjected to scrutiny and criticism. The opposition parties lose their identity if they do not criticize the government. So to guard against it, the Chief Minister, as leader of the government has to defend policies and programmes of the government both in and out of legislature.

6. Co-ordination and Supervision:
In running the administrative machinery Chief Minister will have to encounter numerous problems ranging from routine to serious. Under the circumstances, it is essential to integrate different departments and see that they work smoothly and the ability of the Chief Minister is tested on this count.

A Chief Minister should not only pick a team but also retain it as a team till the end of the term. Whenever problems arise between departments, he has to mediate and sort it out amicably through dialogue and goodwill.
The Chief Minister is the general head of the government. Hence he has the responsibility of supervising the administration.

Though each minister is in charge of a ministry, lack of general supervision results in poor administrative quality. To maintain quality in administration, the Chief Minister will have to supervise it, not only gives him a general feel of the administration but also makes the ministers more responsible. The Chief Minister may correct the working of a particular ministry and offer suggestions.

7. Bridge between the Governor and the State Legislature:
The Chief Minister acts as a link between the Governor and state legislature in a parliamentary government. As all executive powers are vested in the hands of the Crovemor, the Chief Minister is duty-bound to keep the Governor informed about the decisions taken by the government.

Also, the Governor himself can call for any information from the government. The Chief Minister not only acts as a bridge but also as the advisor to the President. Whenever necessary the President will look forward for advice. For example, the Governor seeks the advice L of the Chief Minister before dissolving Vidhana sabha.

8. Power of Dissolution:
The Vidhana sabha exists as long as the Chief Minister wishes because even before the expiry of 5 years term, Chief Minister may seek the dissolution of Vidhana sabha. The Vidhana sabha may be dissolved if deep differences surfaced within the government or within the ruling party or the government loses a motion of no confidence.

9. Power of Appointment:
Though civil appointments are made by the Governor, it is based on recommendation of the Chief Minister.

Question 33.
Discuss the importance of Judiciary.
Answer:
The President of India appoints the judges of the Supreme court on the advice of the council of ministers in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. Article 124 which deals with the appointment of judges, makes it obligatory on the part of the President of India to consult the Chief Justice of India.

It is a practice sanctioned by convention. Normally, the Chief Justice of India is appointed from among the senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.

The following are the powers of the Supreme Court:
1. Original Jurisdiction:
Article 131 of the constitution deals with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is so exclusive that no court in India can take up cases falling under the original jurisdiction.
The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is purely federal in character. Matters relating to the problems and disputes arising between the union and the states or between the states are taken up by the Supreme Court.

The disputes entertained under the original jurisdiction are:

A dispute involving the Government of India Vs the state of Union of India.
A dispute involving the Government of India plus one or more states Vs one or more states.
A dispute involving one or more states on one side Vs one or more states on the other.

The appellate jurisdiction can be studied under the following three heads:
a. Constitutional Cases:
The cases that come before the Supreme court are as follows:
The cases involving a question of law relating to the interpretation of the constitution or certification by the High court. The Supreme Court can take up a case if the High court in its opinion feels that the case involves substantial question of law, which should be decided by the Supreme court.

The Supreme Court can take up the civil appeal if the High court certifies that the case involves a substantial question law of general importance. The certification by the High court is essential in these cases.

c. Criminal Cases:
Article 134 provide for an appeal to the Supreme court against the judgment of the High Court under the following conditions:

If the High Court has reversed a decision of release of an accused and has given him a death sentence.
In a case where the High court has exercised the authority of a lower court and given a death sentence to the accused.
In any criminal case if the High court certifies that the case is fit for appeal in the Supreme Court.

3. Special Leave Jurisdiction:
Article 136 confers a special power in the hands of the Supreme Court to grant special leave. In hearing appeals the Supreme Court may grant Special Leave petition against any judgment or order made by any court or tribunal, except military tribunal, in a case. The decision is entirely left to the discretion of the Supreme Court. This power, however, is to be used only under exceptional circumstances like matters involving general public interest or in cases of grave injustice or cases in which no appeal is otherwise provided by law.

However, the advice of the Supreme Court is purely advisory in nature and it is up to the executive to accept it or not. The Supreme Court may decline to give advisory opinion if it finds unnecessary.

5. Power of Judicial Review:
The supremacy of the Supreme Court as the guardian of the constitution is emphasized by the power of judicial review. The Supreme court has the power of declaring a law made by the legislature or executive action as ultra vires (intra vires) or null and void’ or ‘unconstitutional if it is not in tune with the provisions of the constitution or violative of the fundamental law of the land.

This acts as an effective, check on both the legislature and the executive as any decision made or action taken whimsically without regard to the constitution is declared invalid.

6. The Court of Records:
The proceedings and judgments of the Supreme Court are kept preserved to be made use of in future cases and judgments, whenever necessary by the lower courts. Those decisions are authoritative records on law whose validity cannot be questioned in any court. The courts of records also have the power to correct its own clerical errors.

7. The Contempt of court:
The Supreme Court enjoys the authority of imposing fines or imprisonment for violating the orders of the court (Article 129).

8. Self-correcting Court:
The Supreme Court has the power of correcting its own judgments. This is to ensure any loss or damage, physical, emotional or material that may be caused to any person seeking justice. To put it in legal terms, this is to ensure against ‘miscarriage of justice’.

9. Guardian of the Constitution:
The Supreme Court enjoys the privilege of protecting », the constitution against violation of its provision either by the government or by the people, It is the responsibility of the Supreme Court to see that the laws of the constitution are respected and adhered to by all in India. By acting as the watchtower of the constitution, it checks against the violation of laws.

As guardian of the constitution, the Supreme Court also exercises the power of interpreting. the contents of the constitution. Any matter relating to technical interpretation of details or definitions of terms in the constitution is the sole prerogative of the Supreme Court.

10. Enforcement of Fundamental Rights:
The Supreme Court is empowered by the constitution to act as the protector and guarantor of the fundamental rights. Under Article 32, the Supreme Court enjoys the power of issuing constitutional writs, also called as writ jurisdiction, for the enforcement of fundamental rights. The writs may be against the government or individuals.
The writs are briefly explained as follows:
a. Habeas Corpus:
This literally means ‘to have a body’. It calls upon the authority’, which arrests a person to produce in court, the person to set him free if he has done nothing wrong. It protects an individual against wrongful confinement.

b. Mandamus:
This literally means a command. It is a command issued by the court asking a person to perform his legal duty, which is of public nature.

c. Prohibition:
It is a writ issued by the Supreme court to an inferior court restraining it from exercising powers which is not invested in them.

d. Certiorari:
It is a writ by which a case is removed from a lower court, which does note no jurisdiction to deal with it.

e. Quo warranto:
This writ is issued to prevent a person from illegally occupying a ’ public office to which he is not entitled.

11. Defender of the Federation: The constitution vests the power of settling the disputes and problems between the centre and the states. In order to prevent the conflict of power between the two, the Supreme Court interprets the laws, which help in maintaining the unity of the federation.

12. Miscellaneous functions:
The following are the miscellaneous functions of the Supreme

The Supreme Court has the power of regulating the practice and procedure of the court.
It appoints its own clerical establishment and exercises supervision over lower courts.
The Supreme Court decides matters relating to the election of the President and Vice-president.
The Supreme Court if satisfied, may withdraw a case on its own or on appeal pending before one or more High courts on a matter involving substantial question of law of general importance (Article 139)
The Supreme Court, if necessary, can transfer any case pending before any High
court to any other High court.
The Supreme Court may also transfer a criminal case from one high court to the

Question 34.
Explain the power and functions of Mahanagara Palika. .
Answer:
Functions of corporation:
The functions of corporation may be broadly classified into 3 groups: ,

General functions
Compulsory functions
Optional functions

1. General functions:
The 1976 Act stipulates certain general functions to the corporation. These functions are routine in nature. Management of administration of the corporation Preparation of budget Seek approval of budget

2. Compulsory Functions:
The corporation is duty-bound to perform certain functions designated as compulsory. Following are the compulsory functions of corporation:

Construction and conservation of public roads and streets.
Providing electricity to public roads, streets and markets
Making arrangements for conservancy, drainage and removal of garbage.
Providing of safe drinking water and water for other purposes.
Naming and numbering of roads.
Construction and maintenance of pubic markets.
Prevent diseases through effective public health system
Control over construction of buildings through effective clearance system.
Prevent adulteration of food products , milk and pharmaceuticals.
Registaration and maintenance of birth and death records.
Establishment and maintenance of primary schools.
Planting and conservation of saplings
Construction and maintenance of public gardens and play grounds.
Construction and maintenance of burial grounds.
Protection of public property and public monuments.

3. Optional functions:

Optional functions are discretionary in nature. They can be undertaken only if the time and money permit. The following are the optional functions of the corporations.

Establishment of an efficient transport system.
Establish associations for the welfare of orphans and the destitute.
Establishment and maintenance of child welfare centers.
Construction and conservation of swimming pools and bathing Ghats.
Conduct surveys of land and buildings
Construction and maintenance of museums, art galleries, and gardens with district plants.
Establishment and maintenance of hospitals for animals
Raise money for providing relief during natural calamities such as earthquake, drought, etc.,
Improve slums by developing them.
Construct houses for the poor, homeless and the destitute.
Construction and maintenance of water troughs for animals.
Support environment conservation programmes through planting trees etc.

IV. Answer any two of the following in 30 to 40 sentences each: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 35.
Explain the meaning and importance of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Importance of a constitution to the state is discussed below:
1. Outlines the goals of state:
No state can progress and prosper, however rich and wealthy if it does not possess clear cut aims and objectives. A constitution details the path to be followed by a state in accomplishing its objectives thereby living up to the aims and objectives of its people.

2. Regulates behavior of people:
The constitution provides for basic guidelines or a reasonable code of conduct which helps create a civil and civilized society. A constitution is very important in harmonizing relationship between and among numerous sections of people.

3. Control over authority of the government:
The government derives its power from the constitution and is bound to abide by provisions of the constitution. No government can take law into its hand and deal whimsically.

4. Establishes ruler ruled relationship:
The people and government are like two faces of the same coin. A state can succeed only if people and government share mutual trust and co-operation. The constitution should avoid any kind of needless friction between the governor and the governed.

5. A guide to future generations:
A constitution is often referred to as the mirror of a state which reflects the basic ambitions and aspirations of a state. By acting as a standard of reference it guides future generations to make necessary changes based on the existing structure.

Question 36.
Write the power and functions of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The members of Lok Sabha are elected by the people. All adult citizens unless disqualified for other reasons have the right to select their representatives. Qualifications to become the members are must be a citizen of the country and must have attained the minimum age fixed by the constitution. The term of office is five years. Speaker is the presiding officer. He is elected from among the members of the house.

The powers and functions of Lok Sabha are as follows:
1. Legislative functions:
The power of Loksabha extends to all subjects falling under the Union list and the Concurrent list. In case of emergency in operation, its power also extends to State list as well. No bill can become a law without the consent of Loksabha. The Loksabha has equal powers of law making with Rajyasabha except on financial matters where the supremacy of Loksabha is total.

In case of disagreement between the two houses on a matter of legislation, it is resolved by a Joint Sitting of both the houses presided over by the Speaker. In a Joint Sitting, Loksabha would emerge triumphant because the decisions are taken by a majority of the total number of members of both the house present and voting in which the numerical superiority of Loksabha prevails.

2. Financial functions:
On financial matters, the supremacy of the Loksabha is total and complete. “One, who holds purse, holds power” said James Madison. By establishing its authority over the national purse, Loksabha establishes its authority over the Rajyasabha.

It is expressly stated that Money bill can originate only in the house of people. Regarding budget, Loksabha being a representative house enjoys total authority. Loksabha’s position on financial matters is such that the demands for grants are placed only before the Loksabha.

3. Control over the executive:
The Loksabha enjoys direct control over the executive because; executive is directly responsible to the lower house and stays in office as long as it enjoys the confidence of the house. The Loksabha not only makes laws but also supervises the implementation. The lower house being a debating house, the members are free to seek information from the executive and raise questions and seek clarifications.

The members can effectively seek information from the government by way of discussions and debates during the Question Hour (seek clarification), the Adjournment Motion (raises issues of national importance), the Zero Hour, the Cu motion, the Call-attention motion, etc. The soundest way of controlling the executive is by way of moving the No-confidence motion, if the executive fails to win the support of Lok sabha, they must step down.

4. Constituent functions:
The Loksabha shares equal powers in regard to amending provisions of the constitution. An amendment may be initiated either in the Rajyasabha or Loksabha and must be passed by a 2/3 majority in both the houses present and voting. The agreement of Rajyasabha is compulsory for the success of constitutional amendment.

5. Electoral functions:
The Loksabha and Rajyasabha elect the highest constitutional functionaries such as the President and the Vice-president. The President is elected by the members of Loksabha and Rajyasabha along with the members of Legislative Assemblies of the states. The Vice-president is elected by members of Loksabha and Rajyasabha.

6. Judicial functions:
The Loksabha acts as a judge in the impeachment of the President. Either house can prefer the charge of impeachment. If. Rajyasabha prefers the charge, Loksabha investigates the charge and if it passes a resolution by a 2/3 majority of the total membership of the house. President stands impeached from the office.

The Loksabha also sits in Judgement, along with the Rajyasabha, in removing high constitutional functionaries such as the Comptroller and Auditor General, The Chief Vigilance Commissioner, the Chief Election Commissioner, etc.

Question 37.
Explain the power and functions of President of India.
Answer:
In the Parliamentary government, the position of the President is that of a respectful figure-head, representing the honor and dignity of the people of India. It has become a fashion to ¦ label the President as ‘ a rubber stamp’, the impression is that he does nothing but signing bills brought before him. But there are occasions that offer scope for independent decisions.

When no party enjoys a majority, the power to appoint Prime minister rests with the President (Article 75). In case of sudden demise of Prime minister, if the party fails to elect its leader, at the earliest, President may appoint a person of his choice as the Prime minister. Importantly, if a government loses majority and recommends for the dissolution of the house (Lok Sabha), it is pure power of the President to dissolve the parliament or not (Article 85).

The powers and functions of the President are as follows:
a. Legislative Functions:
The legislative functions are detailed below:
1. To summon, prorogue and dissolve the Parliament.

2. The President enjoys the power to address the Parliament. It is normally done after general elections or the first session of the year. It is generally called Presidential speech. This inaugural speech outlines the objectives and priorities of the government.

3. In passing the bills, if a deadlock arises due to non-agreement between two houses . of the parliament, the President may call for joint session of both the houses.

4. The President may address Lok sabha or Rajya sabha or both any time and also may send a message to both the houses of parliament to look into a bill. In the considered view of the President, if he is satisfied that the Anglo-Indian community is not adequately represented, he may nominate 12 members to Rajya Sabha and 2 members to Lok sabha.

5. Prior permission of the President is essential while dealing with bills relating to formation of new’ states, alteration of boundaries and some special bills like the finance bills.

6. No bill can become a law without the assent of the President. He enjoys the power to withhold a bill. This power is called ‘Veto power”. However, he cannot refuse his assent for finance bills. But he can withhold assent for a nonmoney bill. But if the same is resubmitted for signature even without changes, he cannot refuse to sign it.

7. The President enjoys the power of issuing Ordinance when the parliament is not in session. It will have the same power and effect similar to that of a law made by the Parliament provided the same is ratified by the Parliament within 6 weeks of its passage. Otherwise, it ceases to be a law and is considered null and void or zero.

b. Executive Functions:
The President is the administrative Head of the State and orders are executed in his name. Article 53 clearly states that ‘the executive powers of the State must be vested in ‘ the hands of the President’.
1. All accords and agreements carried out on behalf of the Government of India is done in the name of the President.

2. The President has the power to call for any information from the government.

3. The President appoints the Prime minister and the Council of minister on recommendation of the Prime minister.

4. The highest constitutional functionaries such as Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), Chief Election Commissioner (CEC), ChiefVigilance Commissioner (CVC) are appointed by the President.

5. The member of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), National Human Right Commission (NHRC), Backward Class Commission (BCC) and National Commission for Women (NCW) are appointed by the President.

6. The President enjoys the power of removing highest constitutional functionaries.

7. The President can call for reports from Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Commission, Linguistic Minorities Commission (LMC), Backward Class Commission (BCC) and other commissions..

c. Financial powers:
1. It is the constitutional obligation of President to see that the annual income-expenditure statement. Budget is placed before the Parliament for approval.

2. Financial bills cannot be presented in the Parliament without the consent of the President.

3. The recommendation of the Finance Commissions and the Planning Commission are placed before the Parliament on orders of the President.

4. The members of the Finance Commission and Planning Commission are appointed by the President.

d. Judicial Powers:
1. The President enjoys the power of pardoning the sentence of a person declared an offender by the Supreme Court. He is so powerful that he can reduce change or altogether cancel the punishment. This power is called Presidential Pardon. This is provided to ensure against any miscarriage of justice (Article 72).

2. The Judges of the Supreme Court and High court are appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.

3. The President is entitled to legal advice on matters relating to the constitutional clarity of bills. However it is not binding on the President to accept it.

e. Military Powers:

President is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces.
President has the power to declare war or peace, but parliamentary approval is essential for such a decision.
The President can raise funds for training and preservation of armed forces with prior approval of the Parliament.
The Chiefs of Army, Navy, and Air force are appointed by the President.

f. Diplomatic Powers:
The diplomatic powers of the President are purely symbolic in nature.

The President represents the country in international affairs. His visits are of courtesy nature aimed at strengthening bilateral relations; he does not sign any treaties or agreements.
The ambassadors representing the country abroad are appointed by the President.
The foreign ambassadors are received by the President. No person can be considered an ambassador unless he is given the ‘Letter of Accreditation’ by the president.

g. Emergency Powers:
The emergency powers of the President are enumerated in the constitution from Article 352 to Article 360. The President may declare emergency under three circumstances:

1. The President may declare internal emergency under Article 352, if, in his opinion, there is a threat to India’s security due to war or external aggression.

2. The President may impose ‘President’s Rule’ under Article 356 if he is convinced that in that particular state the law and order has completely deteriorated and it cannot be governed as per the constitution. Though the President’s rule is imposed on the recommendation of the governor of the concerned state, it is not compulsory.

3. If the President is convinced that the financial stability and prestige of the nation is at risk, he may impose financial emergency under Article 360. However, the imposition of internal and financial emergency should be placed before Parliament and its consent taken within 2 months of declaration of emergency, otherwise it is considered invalid.

Question 38.
Discuss the Composition and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
The President of India appoints the judges of the Supreme court on the advice of the council of ministers in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. Article 124 which deals with the appointment of judges, makes it obligatory on the part of the President of India to consult the Chief Justice of India.

In appointing the Chief Justice of India, the President shall, besides the advice of the council of ministers, consult the judges of the Supreme Court and the High courts if he considers it necessary. But, neither the constitution nor the law provides for Chief Justice’s recommendation as to his successor. It is a practice sanctioned by convention.
Normally, the Chief Justice of India is appointed from among the senior most judges of the Supreme Court.

The disputes entertained under the original jurisdiction are:

A dispute involving the Government of India Vs the state of Union of India.
A dispute involving the Government of India plus one or more states Vs one or more states.
A dispute involving one or more states on one side Vs one or more states on the other.

The appellate jurisdiction can be studied under the following three heads:
a. Constitutional Cases:
The cases that come before the Supreme court are as follows:
The cases involving a question of law relating to the interpretation of the constitution or certification by the High court. The Supreme Court can take up a case, if the High court in its opinion feels that the case involves substantial question of law, which should be decided by the Supreme court.

The Supreme Court can take up the civil appeal, if the High court certifies that the case involves a substantial question law of general importance. The certification by the High court is essential in these cases.

c. Criminal Cases:
Article 134 provide for an appeal to the Supreme court against the judgment of the High Court under the following conditions:

If the High Court has reversed a decision of release of an accused and has given him a death sentence.
In a case where the High court has exercised the authority of a lower court and given a death sentence to the accused.
In any criminal case if the High court certifies that the case is fit for appeal in the Supreme Court.

3. Special Leave Jurisdiction:
Article 136 confers a special power in the hands of the Supreme Court to grant special Leave. In hearing appeals the Supreme Court may grant Special Leave petition against any judgment or order made by any court or tribunal, except military tribunal, in a case. The decision is entirely left to the discretion of the Supreme Court.

This power, however, is to be used only under exceptional circumstances like matters involving general public interest or in cases of grave injustice or cases in which no appeal is otherwise provided by law.

This acts as an effective, check on both the legislature and the executive as any decision made or action taken whimsically without regard to the constitution is declared invalid.

7. The Contempt of court:
The Supreme Court enjoys the authority of imposing fine or imprisonment for violating the orders of the court (Article 129).

b. Mandamus:
This literally means a command. It is a command issued by the court asking a person to perform his legal duty, which is of public nature.

c. Prohibition:
It is a writ issued by the Supreme court to an inferior court restraining it from exercising powers which is not invested in them.

d. Certiorari:
It is a writ by which a case is removed from a lower court, which does no enjoy jurisdiction to deal with it.

e. Quo warranto:
This writ is issued to prevent a person from illegally occupying a ’ public office to which he is not entitled.

11.Defender of the Federation:
The constitution vests the power of settling the disputes and problems between the centre and the states. In order to prevent the conflict of power between the two, the Supreme Court interprets the laws, which help in maintaining the unity of the federation.

12. Miscellaneous functions:
The following are the miscellaneous functions of the Supreme

The Supreme Court has the power of regulating the practice and procedure of the court.
It appoints its own clerical establishment and exercises supervision over lower courts.
The Supreme Court decides matters relating to the election of the President and Vice-president.
The Supreme Court if satisfied, may withdraw a case on its own or on appeal pending before one or more High courts on a matter involving substantial question of law of general importance (Article 139)
The Supreme Court, if necessary, can transfer any case pending before any High court to any other High court.
The Supreme Court may also transfer a criminal case from one high court to the

IV. Answer any Two of the following in 15-20 sentences each: (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 39.
Write a note on anyone freedom fighter’s achievement.

Explain the kinds of Equality.
Answer:
1. Natural Equality:
Implies that nature has created all men equal. It can also be defined that it insists on removing all man-made and artificial inequalities and treat all equally.

2. Civil and legal Equality:
Implies that all are equal before law and all are protected equally irrespective of caste, class, colour, race, etc.,

3. Political Equality:
Implies that all the citizens, irrespective any type of difference are entitled to participate in the affairs of state. All have equal voice in the government. It is based on principle of universal adult Franchise.

4. Economic Equality:
Implies removal of inequalities based on wealth and insists on certain > minimum standard of income to all to meet their basic needs.

5. Social Equality:
Implies every individual without any discrimination must be given equal opportunity for the development of their personalities.

Question 40.
Explain the features of Dictatorial Government.
Answer:
1. Absolute power:
Dictatorship is characterized by absolute power where the dictator controls the constitution. He can make and unmake laws. All the laws must originate from him and there is neither a limit on his tenure nor is he subjected to any other authority.

2. Based on Force:
Dictatorship stands on the twin pillars of force and coercion. The word of the dictator should be honored in letter and spirit. Any violation of the order may result in severe punishment or even death.

3. Totalitarian state:
Dictatorial regimes regulate and control all aspects of human existence. It provides security, basic necessities such as food, shelter and clothing, education and order in the society. In totalitarian state’s individual personality is suppressed and all aspects of an individual is regimented and brought under the control of the state.

The totalitarian approach is well summarized by Mussolini when he says “Everything within the state, nothing above the state, nothing outside the State’. Thus, State is the central point around which all human activities must revolve.

4. One Nation one party:
In a dictatorship, for the whole state, there is only one constitution and the administration is managed by one single party and that is responsible for the whole state. Any kind of criticism of the party or the leadership is not tolerated. The distinct feature of dictatorship is its intolerance to criticism and new ideas.

5. No individual liberty:
In a dictatorship, individual freedom and liberty do not find place. Freedom of thought and expression is restricted.

Write a note on ‘Republic day’ celebrated in your college.

1st PUC Business Studies Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South)

January 3, 2025

Students can Download 1st PUC Business Studies Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South), Karnataka 1st PUC Business Studies Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus.

Karnataka 1st PUC Business Studies Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South)

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 100

Instructions to candidates:

Write the serial number of questions properly as given in the question paper while answering
Write the correct and complete answers.

Section – A

I. Answer any ten of following questions in a word or a sentence each. While answering Multiple Choice Questions, write the serial number/alphabet of the correct choice and write the answer corresponding to it. Each question carries one mark: ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
Give an example for extractive Industry.
Answer:
Mining / Fishing.

Question 2.
Karta in a Joint Hindu Family Business has.
(a) Limited liability
(b) Unlimited liability
(c) No liability for debts
(d) Joint liability
Answer:
(b) Unlimited liability.

Question 3.
State the minimum amount of capital to be held by government in a government company.
Answer:
51% is the minimum amount of capital.

Question 4.
Which Act Regulates Banking services in India?
Answer:
Indian Banking Regulation Act 1949.

Question 5.
The payment mechanism most typed to e-business is
(a) Cash on delivery
(b) Cheques
(c) Credit and debit card
(d) e-cash
Answer:
(d) e-cash

Question 6.
Mention the major source of Pollution.
Answer:
Industry is the major source for pollution.

Question 7.
Directors of which type of a company have to subscribe for qualification shares?
Answer:
Public Company.

Question 8.
Equity Shareholders are called
(a) Owners of the Company
(b) Partners of (he Company
(c) Executives of the Company
(d) Guardian of the Company
Answer:
(a) Owners of the Company

Question 9.
What is TAX Holiday?
Answer:
Giving Exemption from tax payment for 5 or 10 years given to industries established in rural area called Tax Floliday.

Question 10.
Expand AVM.
Answer:
Automated Vending Machine.

Question 11.
Which one of the following ¡s not amongst India’s major trading partner?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Germany
(d) New Zealand
Answer:
(d) New Zealand.

Question 12.
Name any one document of export business.
Answer:
Certificate of origin.

Section – B

II. Answer any ten of the following questions in two or three sentences each. Each question carries 2 marks: ( 10 × 2 = 20 )

Question 13.
Give the meaning of Business.
Answer:
Business is an economic activity involving the production and sale of goods and services undertaken with a motive of earning profit by satisfying human needs is society.

Question 14.
Write any two contents of Partnership Deed.
Answer:
Name of the firm and names and addresses of the firm and each partner.

Question 15.
State any two merits of Departmental undertakings.
Answer:
The limitations of departmental undertaking are:

Departmental undertakings fail to provide flexibility, which is essential for the smooth operation of business.
The employees or heads of departments of such undertakings are not allowed to take independent decisions, without the approval of the ministry concerned. This leads to delays, in mailers where prompt decisions are required.

Question 16.
What is e-Banking.
Answer:
It means conducting of banking operation through electronic means or devices such as computers mobile, ATM, etc.

Question 17.
State any two limitations of e-Business.
Answer:
Two limitation of e-business are:

Dependent on internet.
Less security.

Question 18.
State any two arguments against Social Responsibilities of Business.
Answer:
The arguments against social responsibilities are

Burden on consumers.
Violation of profit maximization objective.

Question 19.
Name any two stages in the formation of a company.
Answer:

Promotion stage.
Incorporation stage.

Question 20.
State any two Sources of Funds Short term Business.
Answer:

Trade credit
Banks.

Question 21.
What is ‘Village Industry’?
Answer:
Village industry has been defined as any industry located in a rural area which produces any goods, renders any service with or without the use of power and in which the fixed capital investment per head or artisan or worker does not exceed Rs. 50,000.

Question 22.
Give the meaning of Super Market.
Answer:
Super Market is a large scale retail store that sells a wide variety of products like food items, vegetables, fruits, groceries, utensils, clothes, electronic appliances, household goods, etc. all under one roof.

Question 23.
Write the meaning of Joint Venture.
Answer:
A joint venture means establishing a firm that is jointly owned by two or more otherwise independent firms. In the widest sense of the term, it can also be described as any form of association which implies collaboration for more than a transitory period.

Question 24.
What is “Bill of Lading”?
Answer:
Bill of lading is a document wherein a shipping company gives its official receipt of the goods put on board its vessel and at the same time gives an undertaking to carry them to the port of destination.

Section – C

III. Answer any seven of the following questions in 10-12 sentences. Each question carries 4 marks: ( 7 × 4 = 28 )

Question 25.
Explain briefly any four objective of business.
Answer:
Economic objectives:
Business is an economic activity so their primary objectives are economic.

1. Earning profits: One of the objectives of business is to earn profits on the capital employed. Profitability refers to profit in relation to capital investment. Every business must earn a reasonable profit which is so important for its survival and growth.

2. Market standing: Market standing refers to the position of an enterprise in relation to its competitors. A business enterprise must aim at standing on stronger footing in terms of offering competitive products to its customers and serving them to their satisfaction.

Social objectives:
Business is an economic activity which cannot be carried on in isolation; there arise the social objective of business. Important social objectives of modern businesses are:

1. Providing employment: One of the important social objectives of a business is to provide employment to the society. This can be achieved by establishing new business units, expanding market. etc.

2. Prevention of pollution: With the growth of industries, pollution has become a serious matter. Pollution affects the hygiene and the health of human beings and even animals. So, one of the social objectives and obligations of every business is to make efforts to prevent the pollution of air and water.

Question 26.
Explain any four features of statutory corporations.
Answer:

Formation: Statutory corporations are set up under an Act of Parliament or state legislature. The objectives, powers, duties of these corporations are described in the act.
Governmental control: This type of organisation is wholly owned by the state. The government has the ultimate financial responsibility (i.e. liable for all profit or loss).
Management: The day-to-day administration is looked after by Board of Directors nominated by the government.
Financial autonomy: This type of enterprise is usually independently financed. It obtains funds by borrowings from the government or from the public and other sources. They need not to depend on budget allocation.

Question 27.
Explain types of Banks.
Answer:
1. Commercial Banks: Commercial banks are institutions dealing in money. These are governed by Indian Banking Regulation Act 1949 and according to it banking means accepting deposits of money from the public for the purpose of lending or investment.

2. Cooperative Banks: Cooperative Banks are governed by the provisions of State Cooperative Societies Act and meant essentially for providing cheap credit to their members. It is an important source of rural credit i.e., agricultural financing in India.

3. Specialised Banks: Specialised banks are foreign exchange banks, industrial banks, development banks, export-import banks catering to specific needs of these unique activities. These banks provide financial aid to industries, heavy turnkey projects and foreign trade.

4. Central Banks: The Central bank of any country supervises controls and regulates the activities of all the commercial banks of that country. It also acts as a government banker. It controls and coordinates currency and credit policies of any country.

Question 28.
State any four differences between Traditional Business and E-Business.
Answer:

Point of differences	Traditional	E – Business
1. Formation	Difficult	Simple
2. Physical presence	Required	Not required
3. Cost of setting	High	Low
4. Operating cost	High	Low
5. Nature of contract with supplier and customer	Indirect	Direct
6. Opportunity for inter personal touch	More	Less
7. Level of going global	Less	More

Question 29.
Explain briefly the different types of pollution.
Answer:
The different type of pollution are:
1. Air Pollution: Air pollution refers to the presence of any unwanted gases, dust particles, etc. in the air, that can cause damage to people as well as nature.

Causes of Air Pollution:

Emission of fumes from vehicles.
Emission of smoke, dust and chemicals from manufacturing plants.
Emission of gases and dust arising from atomic plants.
Emission of smoke from oil refineries, burning of trees and plants in forests, burning of coal, etc.

Effects of Air Pollution:

Presence of gases in air, which are not required by human beings, animals and birds, creates serious health problems. It can create diseases like asthma, cough and cold, blindness, hearing loss, skin disease, etc.
It reduces natural visibility and irritates the eyes and respiratory tract.
Ozone layer gets depleted because of air pollution and thereby causes gene mutation, genetic defects and skin cancer.

2. Water Pollution: Water pollution refers to contamination of water due to presence of unwanted and harmful substances thus, making water unfit for use.

Causes of Water Pollution:

Drainage of human excreta into rivers, canals etc.
Improper sanitation and sewage system.
Dumping of wastes and effluents by various industrial units into the rivers and canals.
Drainage of toxic substances like chemicals and fertilizers used in cultivation, into streams and rivers.

Effects of Water Pollution:

It can create health hazards among human beings, animals and birds. Diseases like typhoid, jaundice, cholera, gastroenteritis, etc. are common.
It can endanger lives of various aquatic species.
It can lead to scarcity of drinking water as the water of rivers and canals as well as underground water get polluted.

3. Land Pollution: Land Pollution refers to dumping of useless, unwanted as well as hazardous substances on the land that degrades the quality of soil we use.

Causes of Land Pollution:

Excessive use of fertilizers, chemicals and pesticides in cultivation.
Disposal of solid waste of industries mines and quarries.
Disposal of solid waste from construction of roads, buildings, etc.
Effluents of some plants like paper, sugar, etc. which are not absorbed by soil.
Excessive use of plastic bags, which are non-biodegradable.

Effects of Land Pollution:

Reduces the quantum of cultivable land area.
Causes health hazards as it contaminates the sources of food.
Causes damage to the landscape.
Leads to water and air pollution.

4. Noise Pollution: Noise simply means an unwanted sound that causes irritation. It is caused by modem machines and gadgets such as rail engines, loud speakers, generators, aeroplanes, vehicles, machineries, telephones, televisions, etc. Noise pollution can cause loss of hearing, headache, irritation, high blood pressure, neurological or psychological disorders, etc.

Question 30.
Explain briefly any four clauses of Memorandum of Association.
Answer:
1. Name Clause: It contains the name by which the company will be established. The approval of the proposed name is taken in advance from the Registrar of the companies.

2. Objects Clause: It contains detailed description of the objects and rights of the company, for which it is being established. A company can undertake only those activities which are mentioned in the objects clause of its memorandum.

3. Capital Clause: It contains the proposed authorised capital of the company. It gives the classification of the authorised capital into various types of shares, (like equity and preference shares) with their numbers and nominal value. A company is not allowed to raise more capital than the amount mentioned as its authorised capital. However, the company is permitted to alter this clause as per the guidelines prescribed by the Companies Act.

4. Liability Clause: It contains financial limit up to which the shareholders are liable to pay off to the outsiders on the event of the company being dissolved or closed down.

Question 31.
Explain briefly the different types of Financial needs.
Answer:
1. An activity of business concerned with the acquisition and conservation of capital fund in meeting the financial needs and overall objective of the business.

2. To purchase fixed assets: Every type of business needs some fixed assets like land and building, furniture, machinery, etc. A large amount of money is required for purchase of these assets.

3. To meet day-to-day expenses: After establishment of a business, funds are needed to carry out day-to-day operations.

4. To fund business growth: Growth of business may include expansion of existing line of business as well as adding new lines. To finance such growth, one needs more funds.

5. To bridge the time gap between production and sales: The amount spent on production is realised only when sales are made. Normally, there is a time gap between production and sales and also between sales and realisation of cash. Hence during this interval, expenses continue to be incurred, for which funds are required.

6. To meet contingencies: Funds are always required to meet the ups and downs of business and for some unforeseen problems.

Question 32.
What are public deposits? Explain briefly any three merits of public deposits.
Answer:

Merits:

The deposits that are raised by organisations directly from the public are known as public deposits.
The procedure of obtaining deposits is simple and does not contain restrictive conditions as are generally there in a loan agreement.
Cost of public deposits is generally lower than the cost of borrowings from banks and financial institutions.
Public deposits do not usually create any charge on the assets of the company. The assets can be used as security for raising loans from other sources.
As the depositors do not have voting rights, the control of the company is not diluted.

Question 33.
Briefly explain any four common incentives to attract small scale industries in rural area by the Government.
Answer:
Some of the common incentives provided by the Government for industries in backward and hills areas are as follows:

Land: Every state offers developed plots for setting up of industries. The terms and conditions may vary. Some states don’t charge rent in the initial years, while some allow payment in installments.
Power: It is supplied at a concessional rate of 50%, while some states exempt such units from payment in the initial years.
Water: It is supplied on no-profit, no-loss basis or with 50% concession or exemption from water charges for a period of 5 years. Sales Tax: In all union territories, industries are exempted from sales tax, while some states extend exemption for 5 years period.
Octroi: Most states have abolished octroi.
Raw materials: Units located in backward areas get preferential treatment in the matter of allotment of scarce raw materials like cement, iron and steel, etc.
Finance: Subsidy of 10-15% is given for building capital assets. Loans are also offered at concessional rates.
Industrial estates: Some states encourage setting up of industrial estates in backward areas.
Tax holiday: Exemption from paying taxes for 5 or 10 years is given to industries established in backward, hilly and tribal areas.

Question 34.
Explain briefly any four services of wholesalers to manufactures.
Answer:
Wholesalers services to producer are:

1. Facilitating large scale production: Wholesalers collect small orders from number of retailers and pass on the pool of such orders to manufacturers and make purchases in bulk quantities. This enables the producers to undertake production on a large scale.

2. Bearing risk: The wholesale merchants deal in goods in their own name, take delivery of the goods and keep the goods purchased in large lots in their warehouses. In the process they bear lots of risks such as the risk of fall in prices, theft, pilferage, spoilage, fire, etc.

3. Financial assistance: The wholesalers provide financial assistance to the manufacturers in the sense that they generally make cash payment for the goods purchased by them. To that extent, the manufacturers need not block their capital in the stocks.

4. Expert advice: As the wholesalers are in direct contact with the retailers, they are in a position to advice the manufacturers about various aspects including customer’s tastes and preferences, market conditions, competitive activities and the features preferred by the buyers.

Section – D

IV. Answer any four of the following questions in 20-25 sentences each. Each question carries 8 marks: ( 4 × 8 = 32 )

Question 35.
Explain any four merits and four demerits of Partnership form of business.
Answer:
Merits:

Ease of formation and closure: Like sole proprietorship, the partnership business can be formed easily without any legal formalities.
More funds: In a partnership, the capital is contributed by a number of partners. This makes it possible to raise larger amount of funds as compared to a sole proprietor and undertake additional operations when needed.
Sharing risks: The risks involved in running a partnership firm are shared by all the partners. This reduces the anxiety, burden and stress on individual partners.
Secrecy: A partnership firm is not legally required to publish its accounts and submit its reports. Hence it is able to maintain confidentiality of information relating to its operations.

Demerits:

Limited capital: Since the total number of partners cannot exceed 20, the capital to be raised is always limited. It may not be possible to start a very large business in partnership form.
Lack of continuity of business: A partnership firm comes to an end in the event of death, lunacy or retirement of any partner. Even otherwise, it can discontinue its business at the will of the partners. At any time, they may take a decision to end their relationship.
Lack of public confidence: There is no governmental supervision over the affairs of the business of a partnership and publishing accounts is also not necessary. Hence, public may not have full confidence in them.
Unlimited liability: The liability of each partner is not limited to the amount invested but his private property is also liable to pay the business obligations.

Question 36.
Explain briefly the features of Joint Stock companies.
Answer:
1. Artificial person: Just like an individual, who takes birth, grows, enters into relationships and dies, a joint stock company takes birth, grows, enters into relationships and dies. However, it is called an artificial person as its birth, existence and death are regulated by law and it does not possess physical attributes like that of a normal person.

2. Legal formation: No single individual or a group of individuals can start a business and call it a joint stock company. A joint stock company comes into existence only when it has been registered after completion of all formalities required by the Indian Companies Act, 2013.

3. Separate legal entity: Being an artificial person a company has its own legal entity separate from its members. It can own assets or property, enters into contracts, sue or can be sued by anyone in the court of law. Its shareholders cannot be held liable for any conduct of the company.

4. Perpetual existence: A joint stock company continues to exist as long as it fulfills the requirements of law. It is not affected by the death, lunacy, insolvency or retirement of any of its members.

5. Common seal: A joint stock company has a seal, which is used while dealing with others or entering into contracts with outsiders. It is called a common seal as it can be used by any officer at any level of the organisation working on behalf of the company. Any document, on which the company’s seal is put and is duly signed by any official of the company, become binding on the company.

6. Association of persons: A company is a voluntary association of persons established for profit motive. A private company must have at least 2 persons and the public limited company must have at least 7 persons to get it registered. The maximum number of persons required for the registration in case of private company is 50 and in case of public company there is no maximum limit.

7. Limited liability: The liability of the shareholders is limited to the extent of the face value of the shares held by them. The shareholders are not liable personally for the payment of debt of the company.

8. Transferability of shares: The shares of a public limited company are freely transferable and can be purchased and sold through the stock exchanges. A shareholder of a public limited company can transfer his shares without the consent of other except in case of private companies.

9. Large capital: A joint stock company can raise large amount of capital because the number of persons contributing towards capital are more in number when compared to sole proprietorship or partnership.

10. Democratic management: Joint stock companies have democratic management and control. That is, even though the shareholders are owners of the company, all of them cannot participate in the management of the company. Normally, the shareholders elect representatives from among themselves known as ‘Directors’ to manage the affairs of the company.

Question 37.
Explain the principles of Insurance.
Answer:
1. Principle of utmost good faith: According to this principle, the insurance contract must be signed by both parties (i.e. insurer and insured) in an absolute good faith or belief or trust. The person getting insured must willingly disclose and surrender to the insurer his complete true information regarding the subject matter of insurance.

Example: If any person has taken a life insurance policy by hiding the fact that he is a cancer patient and later on if he dies because of cancer then Insurance Company can refuse to pay the compensation as the fact was hidden by the insured.

Example: If a person has taken the loan against the security of a factory premises then the lender can take fire insurance policy of that factory without being the owner of the factory because he has financial interest in the factory premises.

Example: A person insured a car for 5 lakhs against damage or an accident case. Due to accident he suffered a loss of 3 lakhs. then the insurance company will compensate him 3 lakhs not only the policy amount i.e., 5 lakhs as the purpose behind it is to compensate not to make profit.

4. Principle of contribution: According to this principle, the insured can claim the compensation only to the extent of actual loss either from all insurers in a proportion or from any one insurer.

Example: A person gets his house insured against fire for 50,000 with insurer A and for 25,000 with insurer B. A loss of 37,500 occurred. Then A is liable to pay 25,000 and B is liable to pay 12,500.

Example: If a person receives Rs. 1 lakh for his or her damaged stock, then the ownership of the stock will be transferred to the insurance company and the person will hold no control over the stock.

Example: If a person has insured his house against fire, then, in case of fire, he or she should take all possible measures to minimise the damage to the property exactly in the manner he or she would have done in absence of the insurance,

Example: If an individual suffers a loss in A fire accent, then this should already he a part of the contract in order for this person to claim the insurance amount.

Question 38.
Explain any Eight factors that affect the choice of appropriate source of Business Finance.
Answer:
1. Cost: There are two types of costs., the cost of procurement of funds and cost of utilizing the funds. Both these costs should be taken into account while deciding about the source of funds that will be used by an organisation.

2. Financial strength and stability of operations: The financial strength of a business is also a key determinant. In the choice of source of funds business should be in a sound financial position so as to he able to repay the principal amount and interest on the borrowed amount.

3. Form of organisation and legal status: The form of business organisation and status influences the choice of a source for raising money.

4. Purpose and time period: Business should plan according to the time period for which the funds are required. A short-term need for example can be met through borrowing funds at low rate of interest through trade credit, commercial paper, etc. For long term finance, sources such as issue of shares and debentures are more appropriate.

5. Risk profile; Business should evaluate each of the sources of finance in terms of the risk involved. For example, there is a least risk in equity as the share capital has to be repaid only at the time of winding up and dividends need not be paid if no profits are available.

6. Control: A particular source of fund may affect the control and power of the owners on the management of a firm. Issue of equity shares may mean dilution of the control.

7. Effect on credit worthiness: The dependence of business on certain sources may affect its credit worthiness in the market.

8. Flexibility and ease: Another aspect affecting the choice of a source of finance is the flexibility and ease of obtaining funds. Restrictive provisions, detailed investigation and documentation in case of borrowings from banks and financial institutions.

9. Tax benefits: Various sources may also be weighed in terms of their tax benefits. For example, while the dividend on preference shares is not tax deductible, interest paid on debentures and loan is tax deductible and may, therefore, be preferred by organisations seeking tax advantage.

Question 39.
Explain the merits and limitations of chain stores.
Answer:
Merits:

Economics of scale: As there is central procurement/manufacturing, the multiple-shop organisation enjoys the economies of scale.
Elimination of middlemen: By selling directly to the consumers, the multiple-shop organisation is able to eliminate unnecessary middlemen in the sale of goods and services.
No bad debts: Since all the sales in these shops are made on cash basis, there are no losses on account of bad debts.
Transfer of goods: The goods not in demand in a particular locality may be transferred to another locality where it is in demand. This reduces the chances of dead stock in these shops.
Diffusion of risk: The losses incurred by one shot may be covered by profits in other shops, reducing the total risk of an organisation.
Low cost: Because of centralised a purchasing, elimination of middlemen, centralised promotion of sales and increased sales, the multiple shops have lower cost of business.
Flexibility: Under this system, if a shop is flot operating at a profit, the management may decide to close it or shift it to some other place without really affecting the profitability of the organisation as a whole.

Limitations:

Limited selection of goods: The multiple shops deal only in limited range of products, mostly those produced by the marketers. They do not sell products of other manufacturers.
Lack of initiative: The personnel managing the multiple shops have to obey the instructions received from the head office. This makes them habitual of looking up to the head office for guidance on all matters, and takes away the initiative from them to use their creative skills to satisfy the customers.
Lack of personal touch: Lack of initiative in the employees sometimes leads to indifference and lack of personal touch in them.
Difficult to change demand: If the demand for the merchandise handled by multiple shops change rapidly, the management may have to sustain huge losses because of large stocks lying unsold at the central depot.

Question 40.
Explain the benefits of International business both to Nations and Firms.
Answer:
Benefits of international business to nation:

1. Earning of foreign exchange: International business helps a country to earn foreign exchange which it can later use for meeting its imports of capital goods, technology, petroleum products and fertilisers, pharmaceutical products and a host of other consumer products which otherwise might not be available domestically.

2. More efficient use of resources: As stated earlier, international business operates on a simple principle produce what your country can produce more efficiently, and trade the surplus production so generated with other countries to procure what they can produce more efficiently. When countries trade on this principle, they end up producing much more than what they can when each of them attempts to produce all the goods and services on its own.

3. Improving growth prospects and employment potentials: Producing solely for the purposes of domestic consumption severely restricts a country’s prospects for growth and employment. Many countries, especially the developing ones, could not execute their plans to produce on a larger scale, and thus create employment for people because their domestic market was not large enough to absorb all that extra production.

4. Increased standard of living: In the absence of international trade of goods and services, it would not have been possible for the world community to consume goods and services produced in other countries that the people in these countries are able to consume and enjoy a higher standard of living.

5. Greater variety of goods available for consumption: International trade brings in different varieties of a particular product from different destinations. This gives consumers a wider array of choices which will not only improve their quality of life but as a whole it will help the country to grow.

6. Consumption at cheaper cost: International trade enables a country to consume things which either cannot be produced within its borders or production may cost very high. Therefore it becomes cost cheaper to import from other countries through foreign trade.

7. Reduces trade fluctuations: By making the size of the market large with large supplies and extensive demand, international trade reduces trade fluctuations. The prices of goods tend to remain more stable.

Benefits of international business to firms:

1. Prospects for higher profits: International business can be more profitable than the domestic business. When the domestic prices are lower, business firms can earn more profits by selling their products in countries where prices are high.

2. Increased capacity utilization: Many firms setup production capacities for their products which are in excess of demand in the domestic market. By planning overseas expansion and procuring orders from foreign customers, they can think of making use of their surplus production capacities and also improving the profitability of their operations.

3. Prospects for growth: Business firms find it quite frustrating when demand for their products starts getting saturated in the domestic market. Such firms can considerably improve prospects of their growth by plunging into overseas markets. This is precisely what has prompted many of the multinationals from the developed countries to enter into markets of developing countries.

4. Way out to intense competition in domestic market: When competition in the domestic market is very intense, internationalization seems to be the only way to achieve significant growth. Highly competitive domestic market drives many companies to go international in search of markets for their products.

5. Improved business vision: The growth of international business of many companies is essentially a part of their business policies or strategic management. The vision to become international comes from the urge to grow, the need to become more competitive, the need to diversify and to gain strategic advantages of internationalization.

Section – E

V. Answer any two of the following questions: ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 41.
As a customer of bank, list out any five e-banking services enjoyed by you.
Answer:
The five e-banking services are:

Electronic fund transfer.
Automated teller machines.
Electronic data Interchange.
Credit cards electronic or digital cash.
Tele banking / Mobile banking.
Any where banking (or) core banking.

Question 42.
Suggest any five important sources of Finance available for a business organisation.
Answer:
Five important sources of finance available for a business organization:
1. Owner’s fund:

Equity shares
Retained earnings.

2. Borrowed funds:

Debenture
Loans from banks
Loans from financial institution
Public deposit
Lease financing.

Question 43.
Give a list of any five institutions which support small business in India.
Answer:
Five institutions which support small business in India are:

National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
National Small Industrial Corporation (NSIC).
Small Industrial Development Bank of India (SIDBI).
Rural and Women Entrepreneurship Development (RWED).
District Industries Centres (DICs).

1st PUC Business Studies Model Question Paper 4 with Answers

January 3, 2025

Students can Download 1st PUC Business Studies Model Question Paper 4 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Business Studies Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus.

Karnataka 1st PUC Business Studies Model Question Paper 4 with Answers

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 100

Instructions to candidates:

Write the serial number of questions properly as given in the question paper while answering
Write the correct and complete answers.

Section – A

Question 1.
Give an example for Genetic Industry.
Answer:
Seeds and nursery company, poultry farms.

Question 2. The head of the Joint Hindu Family business is called.
(a) Proprietor
(b) Director
(c) Karta
(d) Manager
Answer:
(c) Karta.

Question 3.
Mention any one feature of Global Enterprise.
Answer:
Huge financial resources.

Question 4.
State any one type of warehouses.
Answer:
Public warehouse.

Question 5.
Expand BPO.
Answer:
Business Process Outsourcing.

Question 6.
‘A business enterprise must behave as a good citizen’- is an example of its responsibility towards’
(a) Owners
(b) Workers
(c) Consumers
(d) Community
Answer:
(d) Community.

Question 7.
Directors of which type of company have to subscribe qualification shares?
Answer:
Public company.

Question 8.
State any one type of Debentures.
Answer:
Convertible debentures.

Question 9.
Who is an entrepreneur?
Answer:
The person who set up his business is called entrepreneur.

Question 10.
The goods not suitable for Mail Order Business are
(a) Those which can be graded and standardized
(b) Those which can be transported at low cost
(c) Those which have ready demand in the market
(d) Those which are perishable and bulky
Answer:
(d) Those which are perishable and bulky.

Question 11.
Give an example of a business organization that has entered into international business through franchising system.
Answer:
General motors.

Question 12.
Which of the following documents is not required in Import Procedure?
(a) Trade Enquiry
(b) Bill of Entry
(c) Import General Manifesto
(d) Certificate of Origin
Answer:
(d) Certificate of Origin.

Section – B

II. Answer any ten of the following questions in two or three sentences each. Each question carries 2 marks: ( 10 × 2 = 20 )

Question 13.
State any two Auxiliaries to Trade.
Answer:

Banking and Finance.
Transport and Communication.

Question 14.
Compare Active Partner with Partner by Estoppel.
Answer:

Active partners contributes capital where as partner by estoppel does not contributes capital.
Active partners participates in management where as partner by estoppel does not participates in management.

Question 15.
State any two merits of Departmental Undertakings.
Answer:
The two benefits of departmental undertakings are:

These ensure a high degree of public accountability.
The revenue earned by the enterprise goes directly to the treasury and hence is a source of income for the government.

Question 16.
Name any two types of Telecom Services.
Answer:

Cellular mobile services.
Radio paging services.

Question 17.
Give the meaning of Cookies in online transactions.
Answer:
A cookie is information that a website puts on your hard disk so that it can remember something about you at a later time. In other words, it is information for future use that is stored by the server on the client side of a client/server communication.

Question 18.
State any two arguments for Social Responsibility of Business.
Answer:
The arguments for social responsibilities are:

Public image: The activities of business towards the welfare of the society earn goodwill and reputation for the business. The earnings of business also depend upon the public image of its activities.
Government regulation: To avoid government regulations businessmen should discharge their duties voluntarily.

Question 19.
State any two important documents for the incorporation of a company.
Answer:

Memorandum of Association.
Articles of Association.

Question 20.
Who are the parties to a Lease Contract?
Answer:
Lessor and Lessee.

Question 21.
What is the meaning of Cottage Industries?
Answer:
Cottage industries are those industries which are organised by individual using family labour indigenous technology, etc.

Question 22.
State any two types of itinerant retailers commonly seen in our country.
Answer:

Hawkers and Peddlers.
Market readers.

Question 23.
State any two reasons for International Business.
Answer:

To earn higher profit.
To improve business vision.

Question 24.
Name any two Commodity Boards established by the Government of India.
Answer:

Coffee Board.
Rubber Board.

Section – C

III. Answer any seven of the following questions in 10-12 sentences. Each question carries 4 marks: ( 7 × 4 = 28 )

Question 25.
Explain briefly any four characteristics of Business.
Answer:

1. An economic activity: Business is considered to be an economic activity because it is undertaken with the object of earning money or livelihood and not because of love, affection, sympathy or any other sentimental reason.

2. Dealings in goods and services on a regular basis: Business involves dealings in goods or services on a regular basis. One single transaction of sale or purchase does not constitute business.

3. Profit earning: One of the main purpose of business is to earn income by way of profit. No business can survive for long without earning profit. That is why businessmen make all possible efforts to maximize profits, by increasing the volume of sales or reducing costs.

4. Sale or exchange of goods and services: Directly or indirectly, business involves transfer or exchange of goods and services for value. If goods are produced not for the purpose of sale but say for internal consumption, it cannot be called a business activity.

Question 26.
State any two merits and two limitations of Statutory Corporations.
Answer:
Merits:

They enjoy independence in their functioning and a high degree of operational flexibility. They are free from undesirable government regulation and control.
Since the funds of these organisations do not come from the central budget, the government generally does not interfere in their financial matters, including their income and receipts.

Limitations:

In reality, a statutory corporation does not enjoy as much operational flexibility as stated above. All actions are subject to many rules and regulations.
Government and political interference has always been there in major decisions or where huge funds are involved.

Question 27.
What is E-Banking? State the benefits of e-banking to banks.
Answer:
E – banking or Electronic banking means conduct of banking operations through electronic means or devices such as computers, telephone, mobile phone, ATM, etc.

Benefits of E-Banking Services:

E-Banking provides 24 hours, 365 days a year services to the customer of the bank.
The operating cost per unit services is lower for the banks.
It offers convenience to customers as they are not required to go to the bank’s premises.
There is very low incidence of errors.
The customer can obtain funds at any time from ATM machines.
The customer can easily transfer the funds from one place to another place electronically.

Question 28.
Explain the concept of Outsourcing.
Answer:
Outsourcing is the process by which a company of contracts another company to provide particular services. In other words. it refers to getting the work done through outside expert agencies.

Features of Outsourcing:

1. Outsourcing involves contracting out: Many companies have started outsourcing processes to outside expert agencies (i.e. to other organisations) on a contractual basis. The outsources charges fees for performing his services on a contract basis.

2. Generally non-core business activities are outsourced: Depending upon what business a company is in, there will be some activities that are central and critical to its basic business purpose. Other activities may be regarded as secondary or incidental to fulfilling that basic purpose. Only those activities (other activities) are outsourced to outside agencies.

3. Processes may be outsourced to a third party: The processes are outsourced to service provider (i.e. third party) who operates independently in the market and provides services to other firms too.

Question 29.
Explain briefly any four elements of Business Ethics.
Answer:
The various elements of business ethics are as under:

1. Top management’s commitment: Top management has a crucial role in guiding the entire organization towards ethically upright behavior. To achieve results, the Chief Executive Officer and other higher level managers need to be openly and strongly committed to
ethical conduct.

2. Publication of a code: Enterprises with effective ethics programs define the principles of conduct for the whole organization in the form of written documents which is referred to as the code. This involves areas such as fundamental honesty and adherence to laws; product safety and quality; health and safety in the workplace. etc.

3. Establishment of compliance mechanisms: Company must ensure that actual decisions and actions comply with the firm’s ethical standards by establishing suitable mechanisms.

4. Involving employees at all levels: Involvement of employees in ethics programs is a must as at different levels they are the ones who implement ethics policies to make ethical business a reality.

5. Measuring results: Although it is difficult to accurately measure the end results of ethics programs, the firms can certainly audit to monitor compliance with ethical standards. The top management team and other employees should then discuss the results for further
course of action.

Question 30.
State any four privileges of a Private Company as against a Public Company.
Answer:

A private company is simpler to form than a public company. It needs two directors while a public company needs three.
It can start business immediately after incorporation, no certificate to commence is required but in a public company it is necessary to have a certificate to commence business.
Since a private company collects the requisite capital by private arrangement and does not invite the general public to buy its shares by the issue of a prospectus, it may allot shares without following the formalities of a public company.
As no outsiders are its shareholders it is not required, unlike a public company, to hold a statutory meeting.

Question 31.
Explain the financial needs of a business.
Answer:

To purchase fixed assets: Every type of business needs some fixed assets like land and building, furniture, machinery, etc. A large amount of money is required for purchase of these assets.
To meet day-to-day expenses: After establishment of a business, funds are needed to carry out day-to-day operations.
To fund business growth: Growth of business may include expansion of existing line of business as well as adding new lines. To finance such growth, one needs more funds.
To bridge the time gap between production and sales: The amount spent on production is realised only when sales are made. Normally, there is a time gap between production and sales and also between sales and realisation of cash. Hence during this interval, expenses continue to be incurred, for which funds are required.
To meet contingencies: Funds are always required to meet the ups and downs of business and for some unforeseen problems.

Question 32.
Write short note on:
(a) Equity shares
(b) Preference Shares
Answer:
Equity Shares:

1. Equity shares represent the ownership of a company and thus the capital raised by issue of such shares is known as ownership capital or owner’s funds.

2. Equity shares are shares, which do not enjoy any preferential right in the matter of claim of dividend or repayment of capital.

3. Equity shareholders are regarded as the owners of the company who exercise their authority through the voting rights they enjoy.

Preference Shares:

1. The capital raised by issue of preference shares is called preference share capital.

2. The preference shareholders enjoy a preferential position over equity shareholders in two ways:
(i) Receiving a fixed rate of dividend, out of the net profits of the company, before any dividend is declared for equity shareholders.
(ii) Receiving their capital after the claims of the company’s creditors have been settled, at the time of liquidation.

3. In other words, as compared to the equity shareholders, the preference shareholders have a preferential claim over dividend and repayment of capital. Preference shares resemble debentures as they bear fixed rate of return. Also as the dividend is payable only at the discretion of the directors and only out of profit after tax, to that extent, these resemble equity shares.

4. Thus, preference shares have some characteristics of both equity shares and debentures. Preference shareholders generally do not enjoy any voting rights.

Question 33.
Explain any four ways to fund startups.
Answer:

Boot strapping : Commonly known as self financing, it is considered as the first funding option because by stretching out your personal savings and resources, you are tied to your business.
Crowd funding : It is the pooling of resources by a group of people for a common goal.
Angel investment: Angel investors are individuals with surplus cash who have keen interest to invest in upcoming startups. They also offer mentoring or advice alongside capital.
Venture capital : There are professionally managed funds which are invested in companies that have huge potential.

Question 34.
Explain briefly any four services of retailers to consumers.
Answer:
Services of retailers towards customer are:

Regular availability of products: The most important service of a retailer to consumer is to maintain regular availability of various products produced by different manufacturers.
New products information: By arranging for effective display of products and through their personal selling efforts, retailers provide important information about the arrival, special features, etc. of new products to the customers.
Convenience in buying: Retailers generally buy goods in large quantities and sell these in small quantities, according to the requirements of their customers.
Wide selection: Retailers generally keep stock of a variety of products of different manufacturers. This enables the consumers to make their choice out of a wide selection of goods.

Section – D

IV. Answer any four of the following questions in 20-25 sentences each. Each question carries 8 marks: ( 4 × 8 = 32 )

Question 35.
Explain the merits and demerits of Sole Proprietorship form of business organization.
Answer:
Merits:

Ease of formation and closure: Like sole proprietorship, the partnership business can be formed easily without any legal formalities.
More funds: In a partnership, the capital is contributed by a number of partners. This makes it possible to raise larger amount of funds as compared to a sole proprietor and undertake additional operations when needed.
Sharing risks: The risks involved in running a partnership firm are shared by all the partners. This reduces the anxiety, burden and stress on individual partners.
Secrecy: A partnership firm is not legally required to publish its accounts and submit its reports. Hence it is able to maintain confidentiality of information relating to its operations.

Demerits:

Limited capital: Since the total number of partners cannot exceed 20, the capital to be raised is always limited. It may not be possible to start a very large business in partnership form.
Lack of continuity of business: A partnership firm comes to an end in the event of death, lunacy or retirement of any partner. Even otherwise, it can discontinue its business at the partners. At any time, they may take a decision to end their relationship.
Lack of public confidence: There is no governmental supervision over the affairs of the business of a partnership and publishing accounts is also not necessary. Hence, public may not have full confidence in them.
Unlimited liability: The liability of each partner is not limited to the amount invested but his private property is also liable to pay the business obligations.

Question 36.
Explain the types of Co-operative Societies.
Answer:
Types of co-operative society:

1. Consumer’s cooperative societies:

The consumer cooperative societies are formed to protect the interests of consumers.
The members comprise of consumers desirous of obtaining good quality products at reasonable prices.
The society aims at eliminating middlemen to achieve economy in operations.
It purchases goods in bulk directly from the wholesalers and sells goods to the members directly.
Profits, if any, are distributed on the basis of either their capital contributions to the society or purchases made by individual members.

2. Producer’s cooperative societies:

These societies are set up to protect the interest of small producers.
The members comprise of producers desirous of procuring inputs for production of goods to meet the demand of consumers.
The society aims to fight against the big capitalists and enhance the bargaining power of the small producers.
It supplies raw materials, equipment and other inputs to the members and also buys their output for sale.
Profits among the members are generally distributed on the basis of their contributions to the total pool of goods produced or sold by the society.

3. Marketing cooperative societies:

Such societies are established to help small process in selling their products.
The members consist of producers who wish to obtain reasonable prices for their output.
The society aims to eliminate middlemen and improve competitive position of its members by securing a favourable market for the products.
It pools the output of individual members and performs marketing functions like transportation, warehousing, packaging, etc.
Profits are distributed according to each member’s contribution to the pool of output.

4. Farmer’s cooperative societies:

These societies are established to protect the interests of farmers by providing better inputs at a reasonable cost.
The members comprise of farmers who wish to jointly take up farming activities.
The aim is to gain the benefits of large scale farming and increase the productivity.
Such societies provide better quality seeds, fertilizers, machinery and other modern techniques.

5. Credit cooperative societies:

Credit cooperative societies are established for providing easy credit on reasonable terms to the members.
The members comprise of persons who seek financial help in the form of loans.
The aim of such societies is to protect the members from the exploitation of lenders who charge high rates of interest on loans.
Such societies provide loans to members out of the amounts collected as capital and deposits from the members and charge low rates of interest.

6. Cooperative housing societies:

To help people with limited income to construct houses at reasonable costs.
The members of these societies consist procuring residential accommodation at lower costs.
The aim is to solve the housing problems of the members by constructing houses and giving the option of paying in installments.
These societies construct flats or provide plots to members on which the members themselves can construct the houses as per their choice.

Question 37.
Explain briefly the principles of Insurance.
Answer:

1. Principle of utmost good faith: According to this principle, the insurance contract must be signed by both parties (i.e. insurer and insured) in an absolute good faith or belief or trust. The person getting insured must willingly disclose and surrender to the insurer his complete true information regarding the subject matter of insurance.

4. Principle of contribution: According to this principle, the insured can claim the compensation only to the extent of actual loss either from all insurers in a proportion or from any one insurer.

Example: A person gets his house insured against fire for 50,000 with insurer A and for 25,000 with insurer B. A loss of 37,500 occurred. Then A is liable to pay 25,000 and B is liable to pay 12,500.

Example: If a person receives Rs. 1 lakh for his or her damaged stock, then the ownership of the stock will be transferred to the insurance company and the person will hold no control over the stock.

Example: If an individual suffers a loss in A fire accent, then this should already he a part of the contract in order for this person to claim the insurance amount.

Question 38.
What are Public Deposits? Explain the merits and limitations of Public Deposits.
Answer:
Merits:

The deposits that are raised by organisations directly from the public are known as public deposits.
The procedure of obtaining deposits is simple and does not contain restrictive conditions as are generally there in a loan agreement.
Cost of public deposits is generally lower than the cost of borrowings from banks and financial institutions.
Public deposits do not usually create any charge on the assets of the company. The assets can be used as security for raising loans from other sources.
As the depositors do not have voting rights, the control of the company is not diluted.

Demerits:

New companies generally find it difficult to raise funds through public deposits.
It is an unreliable source of finance as the public may not respond when the company needs money.
Collection of public deposits may prove difficult, particularly when the size of deposits required is large.

Question 39.
Explain the role of Chambers of Commerce in promoting internal trade in the country.
Answer:
1. Transportation or interstate movement of goods: The Chambers of Commerce and Industry help in many activities concerning interstate movement of goods which includes registration of vehicles, surface transport policies, construction of highways and roads.

2. Marketing of agro products and related issues: The associations of agriculturists and other federations play an important role in the marketing of agro products. Streamlining of local subsidies and marketing policies of organisations selling agro products are some of the areas where the Chambers of Commerce and Industry can really intervene and interact with concerned agencies like farming cooperatives.

3. Weights and measures and prevention of duplication brands: Laws relating to weights and Measures and protection of brands are necessary to protect the interest of the consumers as well as the traders. They need to be enforced strictly. The Chambers of Commerce and Industry interact with the government to formulate such laws and take action against those who violate rules and regulations.

4. Promoting sound infrastructure: A sound infrastructure like road, port, electricity, railways, etc. plays a catalytic role in promoting trade. The Chambers of Commerce and Industry in collaboration with the government needs to take up heavy investment projects.

5. Labour legislation: A simple and flexible labour legislation is helpful in running industries, maximising production and generating employment. The Chambers of Commerce and Industry and the government are constantly interacting on issues like labour laws, retrenchment. etc.

6. Octroi and other local levies: Octroi and local taxes are the important sources of revenue of the local government. These are collected on the goods and from people entering the state or the municipal limits. The government and Chambers of Commerce should ensure that their imposition is not at the cost of smooth transportation and local trade.

7. Harmonisation of sales tax structure and value added tax: The Chambers of Commerce and Industry play an important role in interacting with the government to harmonise the sales tax structure in different states.

8. Excise duty: Central excise is the chief source of the government revenue levied across states by the central government. The excise policy plays an important role in pricing mechanism and hence the associations need to interact with the government to ensure streamlining of excise duties.

Question 40.
Explain the steps to be followed in Export Procedure up to excise clearance.
Answer:
1. Receipt of enquiry and sending quotations: The prospective buyer of a product sends an enquiry to different exporters requesting them to send information regarding price, quality and terms and conditions for export of goods.

2. Receipt of order or indent: In case the prospective buyer finds the export price and other terms and conditions acceptable, it places an order for the goods to be dispatched. This order, also known as indent, contains a description of the goods ordered, prices to the paid, delivery terms, packing and marking details and delivery instructions.

3. Assessing importer’s credit’worthiness and securing a guarantee for payments: After receipt of the indent, the exporter makes necessary enquiry about the creditworthiness of the importer. The purpose underlying the enquiry is to assess the risks of non-payment by the importer once the goods reach the import destination. To minimise such risks, most exporters demand a letter of credit from the importer.

4. Obtaining export licence: Having become assured about payments, the exporting firm initiates the steps relating to compliance of export regulations. Export of goods in India is subject to custom laws which demand that the export firm must have an export licence before it proceeds with exports.

5. Obtaining pre-shipment finance: Once a confirmed order and also a letter of credit have been received, the exporter approaches his banker for obtaining pre-shipment finance to undertake export production. Pre-shipment finance is the finance that the exporter needs for procuring raw materials and other components. processing and packing of goods and transportation of goods to the port of shipment.

6. Production or procurement of goods: Having obtained the pre-shipment finance from the bank, the exporter proceeds to get the goods ready as per the specifications of the importer.

7. Pre-shipment inspection: he Government of India has initiated many steps to ensure that only good quality products are exported from the country. One such step is compulsory inspection of certain products by a competent agency as designated by the government. The government has passed Export Quality Control and Inspection Act, 1963 for this purpose.

8. Excise clearance: As per central excise tariff act. excise duty is required to he paid on the materials used in the production of goods meant for export. So if the exporter desires to produce the goods meant for export by himself, he has to pay the excise duty on the material materials used in production of goods for export and obtain export clearance from the concerned excise commissioner. For obtaining export clearance from the concerned excise commissioner exporter has to follow following steps:

(i) The exporter has to apply, to the concerned Excise Commissioner in the region with an invoice because according to the Central Excise Tariff Act, excise duty is payable on the materials used in manufacturing goods. If the Excise Commissioner is satisfied, he may issue the excise clearance.

(ii) But in many cases the government exempts payment of excise duty or later on refunds it if the goods so manufactured are meant for exports. This is done to provide an incentive to the exporters to export more and also to make the export products more competitive in the world markets.

Section – E

V. Answer any two of the following questions: ( 2 × 5 =10 )

Question 41.
As the owner of a business unit, what risks you may face in running it?
Answer:
The risk faced by owner while running a business unit are:

Market information risk
Consumer taste and preferences risk
Government policy risk
Capital risk
Operational risk.

Question 42.
As a businessman having concern for environment protection, suggest any five steps which can be taken by you for environment protection.
Answer:
Five measures to control environment pollution are:

Definite commitment by top management of enterprise to create, maintain and develop work culture for environmental protection and pollution prevention.
Complying with laws and regulations enacted by the government for prevention of pollution.
Participation in government programmes relating to management of hazardous substance, plantation of trees and checking deforestation.
Ensuring that commitment to environmental protection is shared throughout the enterprise by all divisions and employees.
Arranging educational workshop and training materials to share technical information and experience with suppliers, dealers and customers to get them actively involved in pollution control programmes.

Question 43.
Give a list of any five institutions which support small business in India.
Answer:
Five institutions which support small business in India are:

National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
National Small Industrial Corporation (NSIC).
Small Industrial Development Bank of India (SIDBI).
Rural and Women Entrepreneurship Development (RWED).
District Industries Centres (DICs).

1st PUC Business Studies Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

January 2, 2025

Students can Download 1st PUC Business Studies Model Question Paper 1 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Business Studies Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus.

Karnataka 1st PUC Business Studies Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Time: 3.15 Hours
Max Marks: 100

Instructions to candidates:

Write the serial number of questions properly as given in the question paper while answering
Write the correct and complete answers.

Section – A

I. Answer any TEN of following questions in a word or a sentence each. While answering Multiple Choice Questions, write the serial number/alphabet of the correct choice and write the answer corresponding to it. Each question carries one mark. ( 10 × 1 = 10 )

Question 1.
What is trade?
Answer:
Trade refers to buying and selling of goods is called trade.

Question 2.
Who is Karta?
Answer:
Head of the Hindu Undivided Family Business is called Karta.

Question 3.
Give an example for departmental undertakings.
Answer:
Indian Railways.

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a types of bank?
(a) Commercial Bank
(b) Co-operative Bank
(c) Central Bank
(d) Savings Bank
Answer:
(d) Savings Bank.

Question 5.
What is e-commerce?
Answer:
Conducting the business activities with the help of internet is called e-commerce.

Question 6.
Mention any one type of pollution.
Answer:
Water pollution.

Question 7.
A prospectus is issued by
(a) A private company.
(b) A public company seeking investment from public.
(c) A public enterprises.
(d) A public company.
Answer:
(d) A public company.

Question 8.
What is business finance?
Answer:
An activity of business concerned with acquisition and conservation of capital fund meeting the financial needs is called business finance.

Question 9.
Expand NABARD.
Answer:
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development.

Question 10.
“Carry needle to an aeroplane’’ this statement applies to which types of fixed shop large retailer?
Answer:
Departmental store.

Question 11.
Which one of the following modes of entry requires high level of risks?
(a) Licensing
(b) Franchising
(c) Contract manufacturing
(d) Joint venture.
Answer:
(d) Joint venture.

Question 12.
Which of the following documents is not required in export procedure?
(a) Certificate of origin
(b) Certificate of inspection
(c) Mate’s receipts
(d) Bill of entry
Answer:
d) Bill of entry.

Section – B

II. Answer any ten of the following questions in. two or three sentences each. Each question carries 2 marks. ( 10 × 2 = 20 )

Question 13.
What is commerce?
Answer:
Commerce is a branch of business concerned with the distribution of goods and services.

Question 14.
What is partnership deed?
Answer:
The written agreement which specifies the terms and conditions that govern the partnership.

Question 15.
State any two merits of government companies.
Answer:
The merits of government companies are :

A government company can be established by fulfilling the requirements of the Indian Companies Act. A separate Act in the Parliament is not required.
It has a separate legal entity, apart from the government.

Question 16.
What is Insurance?
Answer:
Insurance is a contract between two parties where one party agrees to pay to the compensation to another party against the loss which may arise due to uncertainty.

Question 17.
State any two benefits of e-business.
Answer:

Convenience.
Global reach.

Question 18.
What is business ethics?
Answer:
Business ethics is defined as a set of moral standards which the society expects from the businessman.

Question 19.
What is memorandum of association?
Answer:
Memorandum of association is the main document in the formation of a company and it contains the fundamental conditions.

Question 20.
Name any two owners fund.
Answer:

Equity shares.
Retained earnings.

Question 21.
What is tax holiday?
Answer:
A government incentive programme that offers a tax reduction or elimination to business is called tax holiday.

Question 22.
Give the meaning of super market.
Answer:
Super market is a large scale retail store that sell a wide variety of products like food items and vegetables, fruits, etc. all under one roof.

Question 23.
Give the meaning of international business.
Answer:
International business consists of transactions that are devised and carried out across national borders to satisfy the objectives of the individuals, companies and organisations. These transactions take on various forms which are often interrelated.

Question 24.
What is indent?
Answer:
Buyer finds the export price and other terms and conditions acceptable. It places an order for goods to be dispatched is called indent.

Section – C

III. Answer any seven of the following questions in 10-12 sentences. Each question carries 4 marks. ( 7 × 4 = 28 )

Question 25.
Explain briefly any four objectives of Business.
Answer:
Economic objectives:
Business is an economic activity so their primary objectives are economic.

Earning profits: One of the objectives of business is to earn profits on the capital employed. Profitability refers to profit in relation to capital investment. Every business must earn a reasonable profit which is so important for its survival and growth.
Market standing: Market standing refers to the position of an enterprise in relation to its competitors. A business enterprise must aim at standing on stronger footing in terms of offering competitive products to its customers and serving them to their satisfaction.

Social objectives:
Business is an economic activity which cannot be carried on in isolation; there arise the social objective of business. Important social objectives of modem businesses are:

Providing employment: One of the important social objectives of a business is to provide employment to the society. This can be achieved by establishing new business units, expanding market, etc.
Prevention of pollution: With the growth of industries, pollution has become a serious matter. Pollution affects the hygiene and the health of human beings and even animals. So, one of the social objectives and obligations of every business is to make efforts to prevent the pollution of air and water.

Question 26.
Briefly explain any four features of statutory corporation.
Answer:

Formation: Statutory corporations are set up under an Act of Parliament or state legislature. The objectives, powers, duties of these corporations are described in the act.
Governmental control: This type of organisation is wholly owned by the state. The government has the ultimate financial responsibility (i.e. liable for all profit or loss).
Management: The day-to-day administration is look after by Board of Directors nominated by the government.
Financial autonomy: This type of enterprise is usually independently financed. It obtains funds by borrowings from the government or from the public and other sources. They need not to depend on budget allocation.

Question 27.
Briefly explain four types of warehouses.
Answer:
The warehouse was initially viewed as a static unit for keeping and storing goods in a scientific and systematic manner so as to maintain their original quality, value and usefulness.

1. Private Warehouses: These are operated, owned or leased by a company handling their own goods, such as retail chain stores or multi-brand, multi-product companies. As a general rule, an efficient warehouse is planned around a material handling system in order to encourage maximum efficiency of product movement.

2. Public Warehouses: It can be used for storage of goods by traders, manufacturers or any member of the public after the payment of a storage fee or charges. The government regulates the operation of these warehouses by issuing licences for them to private parties.

3. Bonded Warehouses: These are licensed by the government to accept imported goods prior to payment of tax and customs duty. These are goods which are imported from other countries. Importers are not permitted to remove goods from the docks or the airport till customs duty is paid.

4. Government Warehouses: These warehouses are fully owned and managed by the government. The government manages them through organisations set up in the public sector.

Question 28.
Explain briefly the ways of payment in online transactions.
Answer:
The different ways of online payment are:

1. Cash-On Delivery: As is clear from the name, payment for the goods ordered online may be made in cash at the time of physical delivery of goods.

2. Cheque: The buyer may send a cheque to the online vendor. In this case, the goods are delivered upon realisation of the cheque.

3. Net-banking transfer: The buyer may instruct his bank to electronically transfer the amount from his account to account of online vendor.

4. Debit Card or Credit Card: Popularly referred to as ‘plastic money,’ these cards are the most widely used medium for online transactions. Credit card allows its holder to make purchase on credit. Later the issuing bank transfers the amount to the online vendors account and buyers account is debited.

5. Digital Cash: This is a form of electronic currency that exists only in cyberspace. This type of currency has no real physical properties, but offers the ability to use real currency in an electronic format.

Causes of Air Pollution:

Emission of fumes from vehicles.
Emission of smoke, dust and chemicals from manufacturing plants.
Emission of gases and dust arising from atomic plants.
Emission of smoke from oil refineries, burning of trees and plants in forests, burning of coal, etc.

Effects of Air Pollution:

Presence of gases in air, which are not required by human beings, animals and birds, creates serious health problems. It can create diseases like asthma, cough and cold, blindness, hearing loss, skin disease, etc.
It reduces natural visibility and irritates the eyes and respiratory tract.
Ozone layer gets depleted because of air pollution and thereby causes gene mutation, genetic defects and skin cancer.

2. Water Pollution: Water pollution refers to contamination of water due to presence of unwanted and harmful substances thus, making water unfit for use.

Causes of Water Pollution:

Drainage of human excreta into rivers, canals etc.
Improper sanitation and sewage system.
Dumping of wastes and effluents by various industrial units into the rivers and canals.
Drainage of toxic substances like chemicals and fertilizers used in cultivation, into streams and rivers.

Effects of Water Pollution:

It can create health hazards among human beings, animals and birds. Diseases like typhoid, jaundice, cholera, gastroenteritis, etc. are common.
It can endanger lives of various aquatic species.
It can lead to scarcity of drinking water as the water of rivers and canals as well as underground water get polluted.

3. Land Pollution: Land Pollution refers to dumping of useless, unwanted as well as hazardous substances on the land that degrades the quality of soil we use.

Causes of Land Pollution:

Excessive use of fertilizers, chemicals and pesticides in cultivation.
Disposal of solid waste of industries mines and quarries.
Disposal of solid waste from construction of roads, buildings, etc.
Effluents of some plants like paper, sugar, etc. which are not absorbed by soil.
Excessive use of plastic bags, which are non-biodegradable.

Effects of Land Pollution:

Reduces the quantum of cultivable land area.
Causes health hazards as it contaminates the sources of food.
Causes damage to the landscape.
Leads to water and air pollution.

Question 30.
State any four differences between Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association.
Answer:
1st PUC Business Studies Model Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 1

Question 31.
Explain briefly the merits of retained earnings as sources of business finance.
Answer:
Company generally does not distribute all its earnings amongst the shareholders as dividends. A portion of the net earnings may be retained in the business for use in the future. This is known as retained earnings.

Merits:

Retained earnings is a permanent source of funds available to an organisation.
It does not involve any explicit cost in the form of interest, dividend or float at ion cost.
As the funds are generated internally, there is a greater degree of operational freedom and flexibility.
It enhances the capacity of the business to absorb unexpected losses.
It may lead to increase in the market price of the equity shares of a company.

Question 32.
Describe different avenues for organisation to raise funds internationally.
Answer:
1. Commercial Banks: Commercial banks all over the world extend foreign currency loans for business purposes. They arc an important source of financing non-trade international operations. The types of loans and services provided by banks vary from country to country.

2. International Agencies and Development Banks: A number of international agencies and development banks have emerged over the years to finance international trade and business. These bodies provide long and medium term loans and grants to promote the development of economically backward areas in the world. These bodies were set up by the Governments of developed countries of the world at national, regional and international levels for funding various projects. The more notable among them include International Finance Corporation (IFC), EXIM Bank and Asian Development Bank.

3. International Capital Markets: Modern organizations including multinational companies depend upon sizable borrowings in rupees as well as in foreign currency.
Prominent financial instruments used for this purpose are:

(i) Global Depository Receipts (GDR’s):

Global depository receipts or certificate created by the overseas bank outside India dominated in dollars and issued to non-resident investors against the issue of ordinary shares of issuing company.
The depository receipts are marketed in Europe and United States of America or both.

(ii) American Depository Receipts (ADR’s):

The depository receipts which are issued by a United States of America Bank for trading only in American Stock markets are known as American Depository Receipts.
Securities of a non-U.S. company that traded in the U.S. financial markets.

(iii) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCB’s):

Foreign currency convertible bonds are equity linked debt securities that are to be converted into equity or depository receipts after a specific period. Thus, a holder of FCCB has the option of either converting them into equity shares at a predetermined price or exchange rate, or retaining the bonds.
The FCCB’s are issued in a foreign currency and carry a fixed interest rate which is lower than the rate of any other similar non convertible debt instrument. FCCB’s are listed and traded in foreign stock exchanges.

Question 33.
Explain briefly any four problems faced by small business.
Answer:
1. Finance: The most serious problem faced by SSIs is that non-availability of adequate finance to carry out their operations.

2. Raw materials: Another major problem of small business is the procurement of raw materials. If the required materials are not available, they have to compromise on the quality or have to pay a high price to get good quality materials. They purchase raw materials in small quantities due to lack of storage capacity and hence their bargaining power is low.

3. Managerial skills: Small business is generally promoted and operated by’ a single person. who may not possess all the managerial skills required to run the business.

4. Less productive labor: Small business firms cannot afford to pay high salaries to their employees, which affects employee willingness to work. Thus, productivity per employee is relative low and employee turnover is generally high.

Question 34.
Explain any four services of wholesalers to retailers.
Answer:
Services of wholesale sellers to retailers are:

1. Availability of goods: Retailers have to maintain adequate stock of varied commodities so that they can offer variety to their customers. The wholesalers make the products of various manufacturers readily available to the retailers. This relieves the retailers of the work of collecting goods from several producers.

2. Marketing support: The wholesalers perform various marketing functions and provide Support to the retailers. They undertake advertisements and other sales promotional activities to induce customers to purchase the goods.

3. Grant of credit: The wholesalers generally extend credit facilities to their regular customers. This enables the retailers to manage their business with relatively small amount of working capital.

4. Specialized knowledge: The wholesalers specialize in one line of products and know the pulse of the market. They pass on the benefit of their specialized knowledge to the retailers. They inform the retailers about the new products. their uses, quality, prices, etc.

Section – D

IV. Answer any four of the following questions in 20-25 sentences each. Each question carries 8 marks. ( 4 × 8 = 32 )

Question 35.
Explain any four merits and demerits of Sole Proprietorship.
Answer:

Ease of formation and closure: Like sole proprietorship, the partnership business can be formed easily without any legal formalities.
More funds: In a partnership, the capital is contributed by a number of partners. This makes it possible to raise larger amount of funds as compared to a sole proprietor and undertake additional operations when needed.
Sharing risks: The risks involved in running a partnership firm are shared by all the partners. This reduces the anxiety, burden and stress on individual partners.
Secrecy: A partnership firm is not legally required to publish its accounts and submit its reports. Hence it is able to maintain confidentiality of information relating to its operations.

Demerits:

Limited capital: Since the total number of partners cannot exceed 20, the capital to be raised is always limited. It may not be possible to start a very large business in partnership form.
Lack of continuity of business: A partnership firm concerns to an end in the event of death, lunacy or retirement of any partner. Even otherwise, it can discontinue its business at the partners. At any time, they may take a decision to end their relationship.
Lack of public confidence: There is no governmental supervision over the affairs of the business of a partnership and publishing accounts is also not necessary. Hence, public may not have full confidence in them.
Unlimited liability: The liability of each partner is not limited to the amount invested but his private property is also liable to pay the business obligations.

Question 36.
Explain the types of co-operative societies.
Answer:
Types of co-operative society:
1. Consumer’s cooperative societies:

The consumer cooperative societies are formed to protect the interests of consumers.
The members comprise of consumers desirous of obtaining good quality products at reasonable prices.
The society aims at eliminating middlemen to achieve economy in operations.
It purchases goods in bulk directly from the wholesalers and sells goods to the members directly.
Profits, if any, are distributed on the basis of either their capital contributions to the society or purchases made by individual members.

2. Producer’s cooperative societies:

These societies are set up to protect the interest of small producers.
The members comprise of producers desirous of procuring inputs for production of goods to meet the demand of consumers.
The society aims to fight against the big capitalists and enhance the bargaining power of the small producers.
It supplies raw materials, equipment and other inputs to the members and also buys their output for sale.
Profits among the members are generally distributed on the basis of their contributions to the total pool of goods produced or sold by the society.

3. Marketing cooperative societies:

Such societies are established to help small prices in selling their products.
The members consist of producers who wish to obtain reasonable prices for their output.
The society aims to eliminate middlemen and improve competitive position of its members by securing a favorable market for the products.
It pools the output of individual members and performs marketing functions like transportation, warehousing, packaging, etc.
Profits are distributed according to each member’s contribution to the pool of output.

4. Farmer’s cooperative societies:

These societies are established to protect the interests of farmers by providing better inputs at a reasonable cost.
The members comprise of farmers who wish to jointly take up farming activities.
The aim is to gain the benefits of large scale farming and increase the productivity.
Such societies provide better quality seeds, fertilizers, machinery and other modern techniques.

5. Credit cooperative societies:

Credit cooperative societies are established for providing easy credit on reasonable terms to the members.
The members comprise of persons who seek financial help in the form of loans.
The aim of such societies is to protect the members from the exploitation of lenders who charge high rates of interest on loans.
Such societies provide loans to members out of the amounts collected as capital and deposits from the members and charge low rates of interest.

6. Cooperative housing societies:

To help people with limited income to construct houses at reasonable costs.
The members of these societies consist procuring residential accommodation at lower costs.
The aim is to solve the housing problems of the members by constructing houses and giving the option of paying in installments.
These societies construct flats or provide plots to members on which the members themselves can construct the houses as per their choice.

Question 37.
Explain the general principles of Insurance.
Answer:
1. Principle of utmost good faith: According to this principle, the insurance contract must be signed by both parties (i.e. insurer and insured) in an absolute good faith or belief or trust. The person getting insured must willingly disclose and surrender to the insurer his complete true information regarding the subject matter of insurance.
Example: If any person has taken a life insurance policy by hiding the fact that he is a cancer patient and later on if he dies because of cancer then Insurance Company can refuse to pay the compensation as the fact was hidden by the insured.

2. Principle of insurable interest: As per this principle, the insured must have insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance. It means insured should gain by the existence or safety and lose by the destruction of the subject matter of insurance.
Example: If a person has taken the loan against the security of a factory premises then the lender can take fire insurance policy of that factory without being the owner of the factory because he has financial interest in the factory premises.

3. Principle of indemnity: According to the principle of indemnity, an insurance contract is signed only for getting protection against unpredicted financial losses arising due to future uncertainties. Insurance contract is not made for making profit else its sole purpose is to give compensation in case of any damage or loss.
Example: A person insured a car for 5 lakhs against damage or an accident case. Due to accident he suffered a loss of 3 lakhs. then the insurance company will compensate him 3 lakhs not only the policy amount i.e., 5 lakhs as the purpose behind it is to compensate not to make profit.

4. Principle of contribution: According to this principle, the insured can claim the compensation only to the extent of actual loss either from all insurers in a proportion or from any one insurer.
Example: A person gets his house insured against fire for 50,000 with insurer A and for 25,000 with insurer B. A loss of 37,500 occurred. Then A is liable to pay 25,000 and B is liable to pay 12,500.

5. Principle of subrogation: According to the principle of subrogation, when the insured is compensated for the losses due to damage to his insured property, then the ownership right of such property shifts to the insurer.
Example: If a person receives Rs. 1 lakh for his or her damaged stock, then the ownership of the stock will be transferred to the insurance company and the person will hold no control over the stock.

6. Principle of mitigation of loss: According to the Principle of mitigation of loss, insured must always try his level best to minimize the loss of his insured property, in case of uncertain events like a fire outbreak or blast, etc. The insured must not neglect and behave irresponsibly during such events just because the property is insured.
Example: If a person has insured his house against fire, then, in case of fire, he or she should take all possible measures to minimise the damage to the property exactly in the manner he or she would have done in absence of the insurance,

7. Principle of Causa Proxima: Principle of Causa Proxrna (a Latin phrase), or in simple English words, the Principle of Proximate (i.e. Nearest) Cause, means when a loss is caused by more than one causes, the proximate or the nearest cause should be taken into consideration to decide the liability of the insurer.
Example: If an individual suffers a loss in A fire accent, then this should already he a part of the contract in order for this person to claim the insurance amount.

Question 38.
Explain the merits and limitations of debentures as a source of finance.
Answer:
Merits:

It is preferred by investors who want fixed income at lesser risk.
Debentures are fixed charge funds and do not participate in profits of the company.
The issue of debentures is suitable in the situation when the sales and earnings are relatively stable.
As debentures do not carry voting rights, financing through debentures does not dilute control of equity shareholders on management.
Financing through debentures is less costly as compared to cost of preference or equity capital as the interest payment on debentures is tax deductible.

Demerits:

As fixed charge instruments, debentures put a permanent burden on the earnings of a company. There is a greater risk when earnings of the company fluctuate.
In case of redeemable debentures, the company has to make provisions for repayment on the specified date, even during periods of financial difficulty.
Each company has certain borrowing capacity. With the issue of debentures, the capacity of a company to further borrow funds reduces.

Question 39.
Explain role of Chamber of Commerce and Industry Associations in the promotion of internal trade.
Answer:
1. Transportation or interstate movement of goods: The Chambers of Commerce and Industry help in many activities concerning interstate movement of goods which Includes registration of vehicles, surface transport policies, construction of highways and roads.

4. Promoting sound infrastructure: A sound infrastructure like road, port. electricity railways, etc. plays a catalytic role in promoting trade. The Chambers of Commerce and Industry in collaboration with the government needs to take up heavy investment projects.

5. Labour legislation: A simple and flexible labour legislation is helpful in running industries, maximizing production and generating employment. The Chambers of Commerce and Industry and the government are constantly interacting on issues like labour laws, retrenchment, etc.

Question 40.
Explain the various steps involved in import procedure.
Answer:
1. Trade enquiry: The importing firm approaches the export firms with the help of trade enquiry they collecting information about their export prices and terms of exports. After receiving a trade enquiry, the exporter will prepare a quotation called proforma invoice.

2. Procurement of import licence: There are certain goods that can he imported freely, while others need licensing. The importer needs to consult the Export Import (EXIM) policy in force to know whether the goods that he or she wants to import are subject to import licensing.

3. Obtaining foreign exchange: Since the supplier in the context of an import transaction resides in a foreign country he/she demands payment in a foreign currency. Payment in foreign currency involves exchange of Indian currency into foreign currency.

4. Placing order or indent: After obtaining the import licence, the importer places an import order or indent with the exporter for supply of the specified products. The import order contains information about the price, quantity size, grade and quality of goods ordered and the instructions relating to packing, shipping, ports of shipment and destination etc.

5. Arranging for finance: The importer should make arrangements in advance to pay to the exporter on arrival of goods at the port. Advanced planning for financing imports is necessary so as to avoid huge demur rages (i.e.. penalties) on the imported goods lying uncleared at the port for want of payments.

6. Obtaining letter of credit: If the payment terms agreed between the importer and the overseas supplier is a letter of credit. then the importer should obtain the letter of credit from its bank and forward it to the overseas supplier.

7. Receipt of shipment advice: After loading the goods on the vessel, the overseas supplier dispatches the shipment advice to the importer. A shipment advice contains information about the shipment of goods.

8. Retirement of import documents: Having shipped the goods, the overseas supplier prepares a set of necessary documents as per the terms of contract and letter of credit and hands it over to his or her banker for their onward transmission and negotiation to the importer in the manner as specified in the letter of credit.

9. Arrival of goods: Goods are shipped by the overseas supplier as per the contract. The person in charge of the carrier (ship or airway) informs the officer in charge at the dock or the airport about the arrival of goods in the importing country. LIC provides the document called import general manifest. Import general manifest is a document that contains the details of the imported goods.

10. Customs clearance and release of goods: All the goods imported into India have to pass through customs clearance after they cross the Indian borders. Customs clearance is a somewhat tedious process and calls for completing a number of formalities. It is, therefore, advised that importers appoint C&F agents who are well versed with such formalities and play an important role in getting the goods customs cleared.

Section – E

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions: ( 2 × 5 = 10 )

Question 41.
As the owner of a business unit, what risks do you face in running it?
Answer:
The risk faced by owner while running a business unit are :

Market information risk
Consumer taste and preferences risk
Government policy risk
Capital risk
Operational risk.

Question 42.
Suggest any five important sources of finance available for a business organization.
Answer:
Five important sources of finance available for a business organization:

1. Owner’s fund:

Equity shares
Retained earnings.

2. Borrowed funds:

Debenture
Loans from banks
Loans from financial institution
Public deposit
Lease financing.

Question 43.
Give a list of any five Institutions which support small business in India.
Answer:
Five institutions which support small business in India are:

National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
National Small Industrial Corporation (NSIC).
Small Industrial Development Bank of India (SIDBI).
Rural and Women Entrepreneurship Development (RWED).
District Industries Centres (DICs)

1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

January 2, 2025

Students can Download 1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Papers with Answers help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

समयः : 3 घण्टाः 15 निमेषाः
अङ्काः : 100

I. एकवाक्येन संस्कृतभाषया उत्तरं लिखत (1 × 10 = 10)

प्रश्न 1.
ब्रह्मणः ज्येष्ठपुत्रः कः?
उत्तरः
ब्रह्मणः ज्येष्ठपुत्रः अथर्वः।

प्रश्न 2.
त्यागे रामः केन समः?
उत्तरः
त्यागे रामः धनदेन समः।

प्रश्न 3.
कपिञ्जलः कुत्र वसति स्म?
उत्तरः
कपिञ्जलः कस्मिंश्चिदृक्षस्य अधस्तात्कोटरे वसति स्म।

प्रश्न 4.
हनूमतः पिता कः?
उत्तरः
हनूमतः पिता वायुः।

प्रश्न 5.
दशरथस्य कृते महर्षिभाषितं कीदृशम् अभूत्?
उत्तरः
दशरथस्य कृते महर्षिभाषितं सशल्यान्तःकरणोऽभूत्।

प्रश्न 6.
कन्यार्थेषु के गृहिणीनेत्राः भवन्ति?
उत्तरः
कुटुम्बिनः कन्यार्थेषु गृहिणीनेत्राः।

प्रश्न 7.
कुत्र अन्धकारः आवृतः?
उत्तरः
ज्यौतिषिकस्य कार्यक्षेत्रे अन्धकारः आवृतः।

प्रश्न 8.
गोपकन्यकाः दामोदरं वारयितुं कम् आकारयन्ति?
उत्तरः
गोपकन्यकाः दामोदरं वारयितुं संकर्षणम् आकारयन्ति ।

प्रश्न 9.
नभसोऽपि किं महत्?
उत्तरः
नभसोऽपि ब्रह्मा महत्।

प्रश्न 10.
वैशाली नाम पुरी कः प्रशशास?
उत्तरः
सेनजिदभिदो राजा वैशाली नाम पुरी प्रशास।

II. द्वित्रैः वाक्यैः संस्कृतभाषया – कन्नडभाषया – आङ्ग्लभाषया वा उत्तरं लिखत। (पञ्चानामेव) (2 × 5 = 10)

प्रश्न 11.
ब्रह्मविद्यायाः परम्परां लिखत ।
उत्तरः
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q11

Brahma, the creator of the universe and the sustainer of the world, was the first among the Gods. He told his eldest son Atharva about the knowledge of Brahman, the foundation of all knowledge. The knowledge of Brahman about which Brahma told Atharva, Atharva, in olden times, told Angir. Angir taught it to Satyavaha belonging to the clan of Bharadwaja and Satyavaha taught it in succession to Angirasa.

प्रश्न 12.
वायस-कपिञ्जलयोः कालः कथं गच्छति स्म?
उत्तरः
सदैवास्तमनवेलायांमगतयो वायस-कपिञ्जलयोः अनेक सुभाषितगोष्ठ्या देवर्षिब्रह्मर्षिराजर्षिभिः पुराणचरित कीर्तनेन च पर्यटनदृष्टानेककौतूहलप्रकथनेन च परमसुखनुभवतो कालो गच्छति स्म।
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q12
Every day, at sunset, the crow and Kapinjala would return home and tell each other stories about Rishis and such things, and talk over together what had happened during the day. In this way, they passed their time happily.

प्रश्न 13.
भीमसेनः हनूमतः विषये किं वदति?
उत्तरः
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q13
Bheemasena says thus about Hanuman: He was my brother, excellent in all accomplishments and endowed with both intelligence and strength. That handsome and foremost of monkeys is celebrated in the Ramayana.

प्रश्न 14.
मुनयः किमर्थं हिमवतः समीपम् आगताः?
उत्तरः
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q14
Shiva, who is the bestower of happiness on all, the witness of the doings of the world and the bestower of desired objects upon all, desired to marry Parvathi, the daughter of Himavan, the lord of the mountains. Hence, the divine sages go to Himavan with a marriage proposal on behalf of Lord Shiva.

प्रश्न 15.
सुभाषितोक्तरीत्या लोकस्थितिः कीदृशी?
उत्तरः
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q15
Courtesy towards his own people (kinsmen), kindness to others, toughness with wicked people, love for good people, diplomacy with royal people, simplicity with the learned, courage against enemies, patience with elders, respect to women – thus, those men skilled in the fine arts become responsible for the permanence of the world.

प्रश्न 16.
‘श्री’ महोदयस्य शिष्यवात्सल्यम् ।
उत्तरः
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q16
The love of ‘Shri’ for his students remained unparalleled. He always encouraged bright and talented students by praising them. Prof. A.N. Murthyrao, the popular Kannada writer, was a student par excellence of Shri. When he was his student he would show all the articles written by him in English to his teacher. Seeing the articles, Shri was surprised. Having read the articles, in the classroom he praised the student wholeheartedly thus:”This kind of excellent composition is not possible even from me”.

प्रश्न 17.
कूडलसङ्गम प्रसादनस्य पद्धतिः का?
उत्तरः
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q17
The root of religion is compassion. Indeed God has given us water, food, air and other enjoyments primarily due to compassion for us. We are incapable of returning the favour. Hence, we must show compassion for all creatures. Only then Kudalasangamadeva, who is found in all creatures of this universe, will be pleased.

III. पाठनाम उल्लिख्य श्लोकानाम् अनुवादं कन्नडभाषया आङ्ग्ल-भाषया वा कुरुत (त्रयाणाम एव) (3 × 3 = 9)

प्रश्न 18.
मृदुश्च स्थिरचित्तश्च सदा भव्योऽनसूयकः।
प्रियवादी च भूतानां सत्यवादी च राघवः॥
उत्तरः
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q18
Sri Rama (a scion of Raghu) is gentle and stable of mind, ever gracious and uncapping speaks kindly to all living beings and is veracious too.

प्रश्न 19.
उत्तिष्ठ देहि मे मार्गं पश्य वा मेऽद्य पौरुषम्।
मच्छासनमकुर्वाणं त्वां वा नेष्ये यमक्षयम् ॥
उत्तरः
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q19
Arise, therefore, give me the way or witness my prowess today. If you fail to do what I say, I shall send you to the abode of Yama.

प्रश्न 20.
एते वयममी दाराः कन्येयं कुलजीवितम् ।
ब्रूत येनात्र वः कार्यं अनास्था बाह्यवस्तुषु ॥
उत्तरः
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q20
Here I am, here is my wife; here is my daughter, who is the life of my family. Tell me which ne of us you want to be at your service. Or else, our wealth has no worth.

प्रश्न 21.
चलन्ति गिरयः कामं युगान्तपवनाहताः।
कृच्छ्रेऽपि न चलत्येव धीराणां निश्चलं मनः॥
उत्तरः
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q21
Even the hills and mountains waver when hit by destructive hurricanes. But, the steady minds of great people will not waver even when faced with difficulties.

प्रश्न 22.
तृणानि भूमिरुदकं वाक् चतुर्थी च सूनृता।
एतानि तु सतां गेहे नोच्छिद्यन्त कदाचत ॥
उत्तरः
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q22

Grass, land, water, words which are truthful are all found in the houses of virtuous or noble people and they are never uprooted. (The above verse is found in Vishnusharma’s ‘Panchatantra’ (1-181). Once a monk by name Devasharma was looking for a place for an overnight stay in an unknown village. He found the house of a carpenter and started thinking thus – “One can nourish the cattle by grass, food grains by ploughing the land and supplying water to fertile lands. Thus, in whose house these three benefits are there such a house would be prosperous. Along with these, where the owner of the house has pleasant speech and treats the guests well in such a house one can live happily.)

IV. पाठनाम उल्लिख्य कः कं प्रति अवदत्? इति – संस्कृतभाषया लिखत (चतुर्णामेव)। (4 × 2 = 8)

प्रश्न 23.
सर्वमिदं विज्ञातं भवतीति।
उत्तरः
इदं वाक्यं ‘द्वे विद्ये वेदितव्ये’ इति पाठात् उद्धृतम् ।
वाक्यमिदं महाशालं शौनकः अङ्गिरसं प्रति अवदत् ।

प्रश्न 24.
यो हीनवादी स ते भक्ष्यः।
उत्तरः
इदं वाक्यं ‘विवादः विनाशाय’ इति पाठात् उद्धृतम् ।
इदं वाक्यं कपिञ्जल शीघ्रगौ तीक्ष्णदंष्ट्रो नाम अरण्यमार्जारं प्रति अवदताम् ।

प्रश्न 25.
व्यापदनीया त्वयेति।
उत्तरः
इदं वाक्यं ‘महर्षिवचनपालनम्’ इति पाठात् उद्धृतम्।
इदं वाक्यं विश्वामित्रः श्रीरामं प्रति अवदत्।

प्रश्न 26.
अत्यन्तं श्रान्तोऽसि।
उत्तरः
इदं वाक्यं ‘ज्यौतिषिकस्य दिनम्’ इति गद्यभागात् उद्धृतम् ।
वाक्यंमिदं ज्यौतिषिकः गुरुनायकं प्रति अवदत् ।

प्रश्न 27.
नागं मे वशं करोमि।
उत्तरः
इदं वाक्यं ‘सान्तःपुरः शरणागतोऽस्मि’ इति पाठात् उद्धृतम्।
इदं वाक्यं दामोदरः संकर्षणं प्रति अवदत्।

प्रश्न 28.
अहो धिङ् मां इमौ स्वार्थिनौ सखायौ।
उत्तरः
इदं वाक्यं ‘सन्मित्रम्’ इति पाठात् उद्धृतम् ।
इदं वाक्यं देवव्रतः स्वमनसि अचिन्तयत्।

V. दशवाक्यैः संस्कृतभाषया कन्नडभाषया, आङ्ग्लभाषया वा लघुटिप्पणीः लिखत। (चतुर्णामेव) (5 × 4 = 20)

प्रश्न 29.
मार्जारस्य धर्मोपदेशः।
उत्तरः
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q29

A wild tomcat, by the name of Teekshadaunstra, came to know about their dispute. He went and stood in their path, on the bank of the river. In his paw, he held a blade of Kusha grass. He closed his eyes, stood on his hind legs, facing the sun, and began giving a discourse on morals.

“Ah! Life is transitory and this world is futile. The company of loved ones is nothing but a dream and the presence of the family like the trick of a conjurer. They say:
Our bodies are perishable And even our money does not last forever, We face death continually, So we must live according to the Shastras. A man who passes his days irreligiously, Is like an ironsmith’s bellows Which breaths, yet has no life!
“Why make a long story of it? I’ll tell you what religion is, in a nutshell. To do good to others is virtuous but harming others is a sin.”

I have given up that violent way of life which leads directly to hell. The sages have declared non-violence to be the essence of true religion. It’s wrong to kill even lice, bugs and mosquitoes.

प्रश्न 30.
भीमसेनस्य पात्रचित्रणम् ।
उत्तरः
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q30

Bheema is one of the most famous characters in the epic ‘Mahabharata’. Bheema was the second of the Pandavas. He was born of Kunti. However, his father was Vayu. When Draupadi, during their exile in the forest, wanted to have the Saugandhika flower, it was Bheema who volunteered to search for it. This shows his love for his wife.

As he goes in search of the flower he finds a monkey sitting coolly, blocking his way. Bheema asks the monkey to move out of his way. But, the monkey says that being told he has no strength to move and asks Bheema to leap over him and go. But, Bheema replies that it is disrespectful to an elder, otherwise, he would have jumped over him. This shows that Bheema was not only modest but also had good knowledge of the scriptures.

प्रश्न 31.
ताटकावधसन्दर्भे श्रीरामस्य सन्देहः कः? सः कथं निवारितः।
उत्तरः
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q31

Once, after Sunda was killed, Maricha committed an outrage against sage Agastya and was turned into a demon by his curse. Tataka also became a man-eater. She got the strength of a thousand elephants by a boon of the lotus-born, Brahma, and together with her son, began causing calamities to the countries. Now, she is to be slain by you.

Hearing this, Rama had a doubt about killing a woman. But, Viswamitra cited the example of Manthara, daughter of Virochana, being killed by Indra for her crimes against the earth, and also that of Bhargava’s (sage Sukra’s) mother i.e., the wife of Bhrugu, being killed by the Lord Vishnu. He thus removed Rama’s great perplexity about the killing of Tataka. Rama gave word to kill Tataka.

प्रश्न 32.
ज्यौतिषिकस्य पूर्वजीवनवृत्तान्तः।
उत्तरः
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q32

The astrologer was devoid of any professional training. During his youth, he used to drink, gamble and quarrel. He had left his village without any prior thought or plan. If he had continued there he would have carried on the work of his forefathers namely, tilling the land. Once he hit a fellow villager hard on his head and assuming the person dead, he pushed him into a well. To hide from the police he ran away and settled as an astrologer in a small town. Even though he lacked training, he had all the shrewdness and understanding of the human mind and the causes of human worries. That is why he could answer the questions of his clients convincingly.

प्रश्न 33.
‘सान्तःपुरः शरणागतोऽस्मि’ इति पाठस्य शीर्षिकां समर्थयत।
उत्तरः
‘सान्तःपुरः शरणागतोऽस्मि’ इति पाठ्यभागे दामोदरः दुष्टमहोरगस्य कालियस्य गर्वभङ्गं कथं करिष्यतीति वर्णितमस्ति। एकदा दामोदरः मित्रै सह यमुनाह्रदं गच्छति। कालियोनाम दुष्टमहोरगः परिवारेण सह यमुनाह्रदं प्रविश्य वसति स्म। कालियविषेण यमुनाजलं विषयुक्तं भवति। गोकुलवासिन्यश्च सर्वाः जीवराशयः महासंकष्टान् अनुभवन्ति। व्याघ्रा वराहा हस्तिनः हृदस्य पानीयं पीत्वा तत्र तत्रैव विम्रियन्ते। एतद्विषयं ज्ञात्वा दामोदरः कालियमर्दनं कर्तुं निश्चिनोति। तदा कालियः स्वभोगेन प्रहारं करोति। दामोदरः कालियस्य मूर्धाञ्चितैकचरणः चलबाहुकेतुः हल्लीसक नाम नृत्यं करोति। यदा कालियस्य गर्वभङ्गं भवति तदा सः सपरिवारो क्षमा याचति अभयं च। दामोदरः यमुनाहृदं त्यक्त्वा गन्तुं आदिशति सोऽपि तस्य अभयं प्राप्त्वा सपरिवारो यमुनाह्रदं त्यक्त्वा गच्छति।

1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q33

In the play ‘सान्तःपुरः शरणागतोऽस्मि’ Lord Damodara breaks the pride of the wicked serpent by name Kaliya. Once, Lord Damodara along with his friends went to the river Yamuna. The wicked serpent by name Kalia resided there along with his family. The water of the river Yamuna was contaminated due to the poison of Kaliya. The residents of Gokula faced problems due to this. Damodara, having learnt about this, made up his mind to break the pride of Kalia. Seeing Damodara, Kaliya became very angry and tried to seize him in his coils.

Damodara immediately pressed down the serpent’s hood and jumped up on them and waving his arms like flags he performed the dance called Hallisaka. Then the serpent fell at Damodara’s feet and begged his pardon. Damodara took pity on him and told him to leave the river Yamuna along with his family. Finally, having sucked the poison from the river Yamuna, Kaliya went away along with his family. Thus the title ‘सान्तःपुरः शरणागतोऽस्मि ‘ is appropriate.

प्रश्न 34.
देवव्रत – चन्द्रधरयोः मैत्री वर्णयत।
अथवा
‘श्री’ महोदयस्य कन्नडसेवा।
उत्तरः
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q34

On the way, Devavrata saw Chandradhara, his childhood friend. He had never been honoured. He became extremely happy seeing Devavrata. Being disappointed with his friends, Devavrata.entered the house of Chandradhara. Chandradhara offered him a seat and water for washing his hands and feet. The happiness experienced by Chandradhara was inexplicable.

Having heard his story Chandradhara consoled him Ignoring the order of the king he said, Oh friend, if for saving the life of my learned friend my life is at stake, then also I will not swerve from the path of my duty (responsibility). My relatives consider it as my luck if life is given up: for the sake of a friend. In reality, a friend alone is very important on this earth (in this world)’. Thus, he honoured his friend in his difficulty.
अथवा
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q35

B.M. Srikantaiah was the foremost among the scholars who laid a strong foundation for the study of Kannada language, literature and culture during the first few decades of the 20th century. His contribution is significant not merely because of his personal writings, but also due to the sense of direction and commitment that he gave to generations of scholars. He was responsible for building a dedicated band of creative writers and scholars who strived hard to realize his dreams and added many new dimensions to his ideas.

His great desire was that the youth must engage themselves in the cause of Kannada. He arranged seminars for the sake of students. Under his editorship, the “Mysore Viswavidyanilaya Granthamala” was established to enable common people lay their hands on stories, different forms of poetry, plays and works on criticism. He brought out books relating to knowledge and science that helped the people immensely.

Before independence, the Britishers used English as the administrative language. Everywhere English was used. Just as sage Kanva brought Sakuntala, who was abandoned by her parents and who was looked after by birds and beasts in the forest, to the hermitage and brought her up, similarly Shri nourished the Kannada language which was in a miserable condition, enriched it and reinstated it to its original position. Thus, he served Kannada.

VI. एतासां कृतीनां कवीनां नाम सूचयत (संस्कृतभाषया)। (5 × 1 = 5)

प्रश्न 35.

रामायणम् ।
नैषधीयचरितम्।
पञ्चतन्त्रम्।
दशकुमारचरितम्।
मेघदूतम्।

उत्तरः

वाल्मीकिः
श्रीहर्षः
विष्णुशर्मा
दण्डिः
कालिदासः

प्रश्न 36.
दशवाक्यैः संस्कृतभाषया, कन्नडभाषया, आङ्ग्लभाषया वा लघु टिप्पणिं रचयत। (एकस्य) (5 × 1 = 5)

i) उपनिषदः।
उत्तरः
भूमिका
अथवा
ii) पुराणानि।
उत्तरः
भूमिका

VII. मझूषातः सूक्तं पदं चित्वा रिक्तंस्थानं पूरयत। (1 × 3 = 3)

संसारः, प्रथमः, रक्षिता

प्रश्न 37.

ब्रह्मा देवानां ………… सम्बभूव ।
………… स्वस्य धर्मस्य।
असारोऽयं ………..। VII. संयोजयत –

उत्तरः

प्रथमः
रक्षिता
संसारः

प्रश्न 38.
अ – आ
i) विश्वामित्रः – अ) महाकाव्यम्
ii) कुमारसम्भवम् – आ) गाधिनन्दनः
iii) सङ्कर्षणः – इ) हृदः
iv) यमुना – ई) बलरामः
उत्तरः
i – आ; ii – अ; iii – ई; iv – इ।

IX. रेखाङ्कितानि पदानि आश्रित्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत (द्वयोः) (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 39.

ते परिसररक्षणम् आद्यं कर्तव्यं मन्यन्ते स्म ।
सकलेष्वपि प्राणिषु दया आपेक्ष्यते।
मङ्गलालङ्कृतां सुताम् आददे।

उत्तरः

ते किम् आद्यं कर्तव्यं मन्यन्ते स्म?
सकलेष्वपि प्राणिषु किम् अपेक्ष्यते?
मङ्गलालंकृतां काम् आददे?

X. एतेषाम् उपप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतभाषया लिखत (षण्णामेव) (6 × 2 = 12)

प्रश्न 40.
सन्धिं विभजत (द्वयोः)
देवासुरः, बहून्यहानि, तुल्योऽहम् ।
उत्तरः

देवासुरः = देव + असुरः।
बहून्यहानि = बहूनि + अहानि ।
तुल्योऽहम् = तुल्यो + अहम् ।

प्रश्न 41.
सन्धिं योजयत (द्वयोः)
सर्वस्य + औषधम्, पिशित + अशनः, यावत् + निशासमये।
उत्तरः

सर्वस्य + औषधम् = सर्वस्यौषधम् ।
पिशित + अशनः = पिशिताशनः ।
यावत् + निशासमये = यावन्निशासमये ।

प्रश्न 42.
रिक्तस्थाने सूक्तं विभक्तिरूपं लिखत। (द्वयोः)

इमाम् इमे ………. ।
तृणं …………. तृणानि।
……… मुनि मुनयः।

उत्तरः

इमाः
तृणे
मुनिः

प्रश्न 43.
रिक्तस्थाने सूक्तं क्रियापदरूपं लिखत। (द्वयोः)

रक्षतु रक्षताम् …………..।
भवेयम् …………. भवेम।
………… आस्ताम आसन्।

उत्तरः

रक्षन्तु
भवेव
आसीत्

प्रश्न 44.
विग्रहवाक्यं लिखत। (द्वयोः)
अनित्यानि, सूर्यातपः, महावीर्यः।
उत्तर:

अनित्यानि = न नित्यानि।
सूर्यातपः = सूर्यस्य आतपः।
महावीर्यः = महत् वीर्यं यस्य सः।

प्रश्न 45.
समस्तपदं लिखत। (द्वयोः)
भूतानां योनिः, शास्त्रेषु विहितम्, पीवरा तनुः यस्य सः।
उत्तरः

भूतानां योनिः = भूतयोनिः।
शास्त्रेषु विहितम् = शास्त्रविहितम् ।
पीवर तनुः यस्य सः = पीवरतनुः।

प्रश्न 46.
पदपरिचयं कुरुत (द्वयोः)
गत्वा, निरीक्षितुम्, अथ।
उत्तरः

गत्वा – क्त्वान्ताव्ययम।
निरीक्षितुम् = तुमुन्नन्ताव्ययम् ।
अथ = अव्ययम्।

प्रश्न 47.
समानार्थकपदं लिखत।
दुहिता, सचिवः।
उत्तरः

दुहिता = तनया।
सचिवः = अमात्यः।

प्रश्न 48.
विरुद्धार्थकपदं लिखत।
स्वदेशः, स्थावरः।।
उत्तरः

स्वदेशः = विदेशः।
स्थावरः = जङ्गमः।

XI. संस्कृतभाषया अनुवदत – (1 × 4 = 4)

प्रश्न 49.
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q49

प्रश्न 50.
कन्नडभाषया आङ्ग्लभाषया वा अनुवदत। (1 × 4 = 4)
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 3 with Answers Q50

XII. परिच्छेदमिमं पठित्वा प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि लिखत – [4]

प्रश्न 51.
कविकुलगुरुरिति विख्यातः महाकविः कालिदासः गुप्तनृपाणाम् आस्थाने अविद्यत। सः सरस्वतीसेवया कवित्वे नैपुण्यम् अलभत। तेन विरचितं काव्यद्वयं महाकाव्यमिति प्रसिद्धिं प्राप्नोत् । तथैव त्रीणि नाटकानि तस्मै विख्यातिम् अदापयन्। अपि च द्वे खण्डकाव्ये सहृदयान् समाकर्षयताम्। तस्य कृतिभिः संस्कृतसाहित्यक्षेत्रं समृद्धं जातम्। एवं कविषु कालिदासः नभसि चन्द्रमा इव अशोभत। अतः अद्यापि कवयः कालिदासं बहादरेण पश्यन्ति।

प्रश्नाः

कालिदासः किमिति विख्यातः?
कालिदासः केषाम् आस्थाने आसीत्?
सः सरस्वतीसेवया किम् अलभत?
कालिदासस्य कृतिभिः किम् जातम्?

उत्तरः

कालिदासः कविकुलगुरुरिति विख्यातः।
कालिदासः गुप्तनृपाणाम् आस्थाने आसीत्।
सः सरस्वतीसेवया कवित्वे नैपुण्यम् अलभत।
कालिदासस्य कृतिभिः संस्कृतसाहित्यक्षेत्रं समृद्धं जातम्।

1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

January 2, 2025

Students can Download 1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Accountancy Model Questions with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Political Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

Time: 3.15 minutes
Max. Marks: 100

SECTION – A

I. Answer any 8 questions each carry 1 mark. (1 × 8 = 08)

Question 1.
Commission received is a example for
(a) Revenue
(b) Cost
(c)Expenses
(d) Production
Answer:
(a) Revenue.

Question 2.
Write any two Accounting standards, accepted under IAS.
Answer:

IAS 1 – Disclosure of Accounting Policies
IAS 2 – Valuation of Inventories.

Question 3.
What is real account?
Answer:
The accounts relating to properties, assets, and pocessions with which we carry on business comes under one head of accounts called Real a/c. Example: Cash, goods, land and building, machinery, copy rights etc.

Question 4.
Write any three features of subsidiary⁷ books.
Answer:
Features of subsidiary books are:

It is a book of original entry of transactions. They substitute the journal.
Each subsidiary7 books contains specialised transactions having common characterstics.
Entering transactions is simple and much earlier than journalising.

Question 5.
Write any four items appeared on credit side of trial balance.
Answer:
The items appeared in trial balance credit side are :

Sales
Purchase return
Capital
Interest received

Question 6.
Define bills of exchange.
Answer:
“An instrument in writing, containing an unconditional order signed by the maker, directing a certain person, to pay on demand or at a fixed or determinable future time, a certain sum of money only, to or to the order of a certain persons, or to the bearer of the instrument”.

Question 7.
What is Indirect expenses?
Answer:
The expenses which is not directly involved in production but relating to the business called indirect expenses. There expenses are recorded in profit and loss a/c debit side.

Question 8.
How do you ascertain profit or loss under Single Entry System?
Answer:
Under single entry system profit or loss of a concern can be found in two ways. They are Statement of Affairs method. Conversion of single entry to double entry system method.

Question 9.
State any two elements of computer system.
Answer:
Two elements of computer system are:

1. Hardware: A physical components, it includes keyboard, mouse, monitor etc.
2. Software: A set of programmes, which is helpful to work with Hardware.

Question 10.
Mention the different types of procedure in computer system.
Answer:
The different types of computer system procedures are:

Hardware – oriented
Software oriented
Internal procedure.

SECTION – B

II. Answer any 5 questions each carries 2 marks. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 11.
What is end product of financial accounting?
Answer:
Balance sheet is the end product of financial accounting. It show the true financial positions of a business concern, that provides required informations like assets & liabilities of a business firm.

Question 12.
Write any two features of double entry system.
Answer:
The two features of double entry system are:

It maintain complete record of all transactions.
It is a costly system and requires a specialised skills to maintain.

Question 13.
Write the rule of incomes a/c
Answer:
Income a/c rule are
⇒ “Debit decrease in income
Credit increase in income”

Question 14.
What is bank overdraft?
Answer:
It is a current a/c. Where bank provide opportunity to withdraw more than deposit called (B.O.D.) Bank Over Draft.

Question 15.
Give any two example for errors of principle.
Answer:

Purchase of furniture from vishwantha Rs. 10000 but it is wrongly entered in purchase book.
Sale of old machinery Rs. 1000 wrongly entered into sales a/c.

Question 16.
Name any four fixed assets.
Answer:

Machinery
Goodwill
Building
Furniture

Question 17.
State any two important aspects of Computerised Accounting.
Answer:
Following are the two important aspects of Computerised Accounting.

Data Processing
Spread Sheets.

Question 18.
Give the meaning of depreciation fund method.
Answer:
Under this system, the amount written off as depreciation should be kept aside and invested in readily saleable securities. When the life of the asset expires, the securities are sold and a new asset is purchased with the help of sale proceeds.

SECTION – C

III. Answer any 4 questions each carries 6 marks. (6 × 4 = 24)

Question 19.
What is cash book? Explain the types of cash book.
Answer:
Cash Book is a book of original entry. It records all transactions related to receipts and payments of cash and deposits in and withdrawals from a bank in a chronological order. In the debit side of the cash book, the cash receipts are recorded in the cash column while all deposits into bank account are recorded in the bank column.

On the contrary, in the credit side of the cash book, all cash payments are recorded in the cash column, while all payments through cheques are recorded in the bank column. Usually, it is prepared on monthly basis. Cashbook also serves the purpose of principle book (i.e. cash account and bank account).

a. Single column Cash Book:
A single column Cash Book contains one column of amount on both sides, i.e., one in the debit side and other in the credit side. In the single column Cash Book, only cash transactions are recorded. In the debit side of the Cash Book, all cash receipts are recorded, while in the credit side all cash payments are recorded.

b. Double column Cash Book:
A double column Cash Book contains two columns of amount, namely cash column and bank column on both sides. In the cash column of Cash Book, all cash receipts and payments are recorded, according to the rule of Real Accounts. All deposits either in cash or through cheques into the bank account of the business are debited in the bank column and al withdrawals of cash and payments through cheques are credited in the bank column.

c. Triple column Cash Book:
In a triple column Cash Book, there are three columns of amount namely, cash, bank and discount. Discount allowed and discount received are recorded in the discount column. While in the debit side, discount allowed is recorded along with the receipts, either in cash or through cheque; whereas, in the credit side, discount received is recorded, along with the payments made either in cash or by issuing cheques.

d. Petty Cash Book:
This book is used for recording payment of petty expensed, which are of smaller denominations like, postage, stationery, conveyance, refreshment, etc. is known as petty cash book.

Question 20.
Explain the classifications of accounting under American system.
Answer:
Every business organisation have properties, liabilities capital. For running business it will earn certain income or revenue or has to incur expenses or losses.

As per American approach accounts of a business can classified into five heads. They are,
1. Assets accounts:
Assets are properties of Business. The rights and resources owned by business for running its activities as per objectives come under Assets accounts.
Example: Land and Building, Machinery, Furniture etc.

2. Liabilities accounts:
These are the amounts of credit or debt owed by business to external persons.
Example: Creditors Bank loan, Bills payable, outstanding expenses etc.

3. Capital accounts:
It represent owner’s fund or internal funds, owners claim on assets of the business. Capital is an excess of Assets over liabilities. It includes fund invested by owners, reserves and surplus. Capital is personal accounts of owner.

4. Income accounts:
Amount received or receivable by business from sale or service of its product. Example: Commission Discounts, Rent Interests, dividend received etc. These accounts are same as the “Nominal A/c” in English system.

5. Expenses accounts:
Amount paid or payable for service obtained by business from outsiders are recorded in these a/c. These Expenses need for carrying out business operations. Example: Salary, Rent, Carriage, Advertising etc.

Question 21.
List out the advantages and limitations of manual accounting.
Answer:
Advantages of manual accounting are:

Comparatively cheap workforce and resources.
Reliability.
Independence from machines.
Skilled workers availability.

Limitations of manual accounting are:

Reduced speed.
Increased effort of accountants.
Duplication of work and less integrity.
Relatively slower internal control reporting, routine work, and some others.

Question 22.
Classify the following accounts into

a. Personal accounts
b. real accounts
c. nominal accounts and give reason.

Building account
Salaries account
Bad debts account
Drawings account
Depreciation account.

Answer:

Real account as it is a fixed asset.
Nominal account as it is an expense.
Nominal account as it is a loss.
Personal account as it is withdrawl for own use.
Nominal account as it is an expense.

Question 23.
Record the following actions in the purchase book.
2014
Apr. 1. Purchased from A.K. Garments
100 Trousers at ? 300 each
150 Jeans at ₹ 400 each

15. Purchased from Kumar Garments
100 Ladies suits at ₹ 500 each
20 Blazers at ₹ 1000 each

24. Purchased from Dinesh suitings
50 Pants at ₹ 5,00 each
Answer:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 with Answers image - 2

1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 with Answers image - 3

Question 24.
Pass the closing entries from the ledger balances picked out of the Trial Balance of Mr. Anand as on 31.12.2014:
Purchase A/c : ₹ 1,00,000, Sales A/c : ₹ 1,50,000
Opening stock A/c : ₹ 20,000, Gross Profit: ₹ 30,000
Rent paid : 12,000, Interest Received : ₹ 2,000
Answer:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 with Answers image - 4

Question 25.
What are the steps in preparation of a Trial Balance.
Answer:
Steps in preparation of a Trial Balance are as follows:

Draw the form of a trial Balance
Transfer the ledger account balances to the respective sides.
Total both the sides and see that they are equal
If any difference is found, then check all the ledger accounts and their transfer in Trail Balance.
Still if any difference is found, than the difference should be shown as “Suspense A/c” on the side which shows the balance.

SECTION – D

IV. Answer any 4 questions each carries 12 marks. (12 × 4 = 48)

Question 26.
M/s Vikrant Tires Ltd. took a property on lease for ₹ 60,000 for 5 years term on 1.4.2008. It was decided to charge depreciation on the annuity method. As per the annuity tables Re. 1 for 5 years at 5% would be Re. 0.230975.

Show the Lease A/c and Depreciation A/c for 5 years.
Depreciation = 60,000 × 0.230975 = 13858.5
Answer:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 with Answers image - 5
Depreciation Account: Same procedure to be followed as in the previous sum.

Question 27.
On 31^st March, 2014, Prasad drew a 3 months’ bill on Ravi for ₹ 2,000 and the latter accepted the same. On the due date, Ravi approached Prasad and requested him to cancel the bill and draw on him a bill for ₹ 2,080 for 3 months including interest. Prasad agreed to this proposal. Pass Journal Entries in the books of both the parties.
Answer:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 with Answers image - 6

Question 28.
The following is the Trial balance of Sri Rajkumar of Bombay as on 31^st December, 2013. Prepare a Trading and Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31^st December, 2013 and the Balance Sheet as on that date after taking into consideration the following adjustments.

Adjustments :

Stock on 31^st December, 2013 was ₹ 10,000
Debts worth ₹ 2,000 should be written off as bad.
Depreciate Machinery by 5% and motor vans by 15%.
Provision for bad and doubtful debts should be increased by ₹ 600.
Commission accrued and not received ₹ 500.
Goods worth ₹ 500 were used by the proprietor for his personal use.
On 20^th December, 2013, a fire broke out in the shop and goods worth ₹ 2,000 were completely destroyed. The Insurance Company accepted the claim for ₹ 1500 only and paid the amount on 1^st January, 2014.

1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 with Answers image - 9

Answer:

1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 with Answers image - 12

Note :

1. Returns given in the debit column of the trial balance mean sales returns. So, they should be deducted from sales on the credit side of the Trading Account.

2. Returns given in the credit column of the trial balance mean purchases returns. So, they should be deducted from purchases on the credit side of the Trading Account.

3. The statement “Provision for Bad and Doubtful Debts should be increased by ₹ 600” means that the New Provision for Bad and Doubtful Debts should be ₹ 3,600 (i.e., the existing or Old Provision for Bad and Doubtful Debts of ₹ 3,000 plus ₹ 600 more).

4. Income-tax paid is a personal expenses of the proprietor. So, it should be treated as drawings. As drawings, it should be deducted from capital on the liabilities side of balance sheet.

5. Goods of ₹ 500 used by the proprietor for his personal use should be deducted from purchases on the debit side of the Trading Account, further, as drawings, they should be deducted from capital on the liabilities side of the balance sheet.

Question 29.
Sri Krupashankar, a retailer had not kept proper books of accounts. From the following, you are asked to find out his profit or loss for the year ending 31-3-2014. Also prepare a Revised Statement of affairs as on that date.
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 with Answers image - 15
Following additional details are supplied to you.

Sri Krupashankar was transferring ₹ 200 per month from his business Bank Account to his private account. He had also paid ₹ 600 to his son as pocket expenses out of his business funds.
During the year, he sold his private property for ₹ 5,000 and invested the proceeds into the business.
Out of sundry debtors, ₹ 900 worth is irrecoverable and further 10% RBD is to be provided.
Provide Depreciation on Motor Van and Furniture at 10% each.
Appreciate investment by 25%
Rent unpaid amounted to ₹ 600.

Answer:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 with Answers image - 16

Question 30.
On checking Ram’s Cash Book with the Bank Statement of his overdrawn Current. Account for the month of November, 2013 find the following.

1. Cash Book showed an overdraft of ₹ 500.
2. The payment side of the cash book had been undercast by ₹ 150.
3. A cheque amounting to ₹ 7,000 drawn and entered in the cash book had been presented.
4. A cheque for ₹ 750 drawn on his saving deposit account has been shown as drawn on current account in cash book.
Cheques amounting to ₹ 6,000 sent to the bank for collection, though entered in the cash book, had not been credited by the bank.
Bank charges of ₹ 75 as per bank statement of account had not been taken in the cash book.
Dividends of the amount of ₹ 2,500 had been paid direct to the bank and not entered in the cash book.

You are requested to arrive at the Balance as it would appear ion the Bank statement as on 30^th November, 2013.
Answer:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 with Answers image - 19

Net profits for the year:
Note: As motor car was purchased on 30-6-2013, depreciation on motor car should be provided only for half year.
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 with Answers image - 21

Question 31.
Enter the following transaction in proper subsidiary books, and post them to ledger.
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 with Answers image - 21
Answer:

Question 32.
The following particulars are related to B R Company

Machine ‘P’ purchased on 01.10.2011 at ₹ 30,000
Machine‘Q’purchased on 01.01.2013 at ₹ 24,000
Machine ‘P’ sold for ₹ 25,600 on 31.03.2013.

The Company charges depreciation at 10% p.a. on 31^st March every year.
Show the Machinery A/c and Depreciation A/c for three years ending on 31.3.2014 underwritten down value method.
Answer:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 with Answers image - 26

SECTION – E

V. Answer any 2 questions each carry 5 mark. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 33.
Prepare a specimen of a simple petty cash book with imaginary figures.
Answer:
1. Format of Journal
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 with Answers image - 28

2. Format of Ledger
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 with Answers image - 29

Question 34.
Prepare a trading account with imaginary figures.
Answer:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 with Answers image - 30

Question 35.
Prepare a specimen of a promissory note.
Answer:
1. Capital = ₹ Assets – Liabilities
₹ 1,20,000 = ₹ 4,00,000 – ₹ 1,80,000

2. Assets = Liabilities + Capital
₹ 3,30,000 = ₹ 1,50,000 + ₹ 1,80,000

3. Liabilities = Assets – Capital
₹ 3,20,000 = ₹ 6,00,000 – ₹ 2,80,000.

1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

January 2, 2025

Students can Download 1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Papers with Answers help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

समयः : 3 घण्टाः 15 निमेषाः
अङ्काः : 100

I. एकवाक्येन संस्कृतभाषया उत्तरं लिखत (1 × 10 = 10)

प्रश्न 1.
विश्वं कस्मात् सम्भवति?
उत्तर:
विश्वम् अक्षरात् सम्भवति।

प्रश्न 2.
वासवः केषां राजा?
उत्तर:
वासवः सर्वस्य लोकस्य राजा।

प्रश्न 3.
शश-कपिञ्जलयोः विवादनिर्णायकः कः?
उत्तर:
शशः कपिञ्जलयोः विवादनिर्णायकः तीक्ष्णदंष्ट्रो नामारण्य-मार्जारः।

प्रश्न 4.
सागरः केन लचितः?
उत्तर:
हनूमता सागरः लचितः।

प्रश्न 5.
पुरुषादिनी का?
उत्तर:
पुरुषादिनी ताटका।

प्रश्न 6.
मेना कस्य पत्नी?
उत्तर:
मेना हिमालयस्य पत्नी।

प्रश्न 7.
ज्यौतिषिकः कुत्र उपविश्य ग्राहकान् प्रतीक्षते?
उत्तर:
ज्यौतिषिकः विपणिमार्गस्य पावै स्थितस्य वटवृक्षस्य छायायाम् उपविश्य ग्राहकान् प्रतीक्षते।

प्रश्न 8.
दामोदरस्य भ्राता कः?
उत्तर:
दामोदरस्य भ्राता सङ्कर्षणः (बलरामः)।

प्रश्न 9.
कन्दैः फलैः के कालं क्षपयन्ति?
उत्तर:
कन्दैः फलैः मुनिवराः कालं क्षपयन्ति ।

प्रश्न 10.
सोमदेवः कस्य मित्रम् आसीत्?
उत्तर:
सोमदेवः देवव्रतस्य मित्रम् आसीत्।

प्रश्न 11.
विश्वस्य उत्पत्तिः कथमिति सोदाहरणं लिखत ।
उत्तर:
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q11
As a spider spreads out and withdraws its thread), as on the earth grow the herbs (and trees), and as from a living man issues out hair (on the head and body), so out of the Imperishable does the Universe emerge here.

प्रश्न 12.
धर्मोपदेशं श्रुत्वा कपिञ्जलः शशकं किमाह?
उत्तर:
धर्मोपदेशनां श्रुत्वा शशकः आह – ‘भो भोः! कपिञ्जल! एष नदीतीरे तपस्वी धर्मवादी तिष्ठति। तदेनं पृच्छावः।
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q12
Having heard the religious discourse delivered by the cat, the hare said to the sparrow, “Kapinjala, the fellow standing on the bank of the river, is a Tapasvi and an exponent of religion. Let us go and ask his opinion”.

प्रश्न 13.
भीमसेनः आत्मानं कथं परिचाययति?
उत्तर:
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q13
Bheemasena introduces himself to be the brother of the mighty Hanuman who is perfect in everything. Bheemasena says that he is equal to Hanuman in might, strength, prowess and also in fight.

प्रश्न 14.
हिमवान् ऋषीणाम् आगमने किम् उक्तवान्?
उत्तर:
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q14
When the sages go to Himavan, they are received well by the mountain lord who, after taking them into the palace, allows them to rest there. He thinks that the sages have arrived only to sanctify him.

प्रश्न 15.
सुभाषिते विद्या कथं प्रशंसिता?
उत्तर:
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q15
Education is the real wealth of man; it is a hidden treasure; it provides enjoyment, glory and happiness. It is the teacher of teachers. While in a foreign land it is a relative. It is the supreme deity. Education is worshipped by the kings but not wealth. A person without education is just an animal.

प्रश्न 16.
अक्कमहादेवी ज्ञान-भक्त्योः अविनाभावसम्बन्धं कथं वर्णयति?
उत्तर:
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q16
Knowledge is like the sun and devotion is like the rays of the sun. Without the sun there are no rays and without the rays no sun. Similarly, there is no devotion without knowledge and knowledge without devotion. Thus, Akkamahadevi describes the inherent connection between knowledge and devotion.

प्रश्न 17.
‘श्री’ महोदयस्य विद्याप्रगतिः।
उत्तर:
श्री. बि.एम्. श्रीकण्ठय्य महोदयः तस्य प्रौढशालाशिक्षणानन्तर मैसूरु महाराजाकालेज मध्ये FA शिक्षणं समाप्य, बेङ्गलूरु सेन्ट्रल कालेजतः BA पदवीमलभत। मद्रास नगरे LLB, LLM, च पदव्यौ च प्राप्य मैसूरुनगरं प्रतिनिवृत्तः।
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q17
Sri B.M. Srikantaiah, after completing his high school education, passed the first examination in Arts (F.A.). He then went to Bangalore and joined Central College. He secured his B.A. degree from the college in 1903. Having secured L.L.B and L.L.M. from Madras, he returned to Mysore.

प्रश्न 18.
रामो विग्रहवान् धर्मः साधुः सत्यपराक्रमः।
राजा सर्वस्य लोकस्य देवानामिव वासवः॥
उत्तर:
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q18
Rama is virtue incarnate, pious and of unfailing prowess. He is the ruler of the entire humanity even as Indra is the ruler of gods.

प्रश्न 19.
यत्वेतदासीत् प्लवतः सागरं मकरालयम्।
रूपमप्रतिमं वीर तदिच्छामि निरीक्षितुम्॥
उत्तर:
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q19
O hero, I desire to see your matchless form which you had at the time when you jumped across the ocean, that abode of crocodiles and sharks.

प्रश्न 20.
एवं वादिनि देवर्षों पार्श्वे पितुरधोमुखी।
लीलाकमलपत्राणि गणयामास पार्वती ॥
उत्तर:
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q20
While the divine sage (Angiras) was speaking thus, Parvati, who was by her father’s side, counted the petals of her sportive lotus with a down-cast look.

प्रश्न 21.
इदमत्रोत्तरं न्याय्यमिति बुद्ध्या विमृश्य सः।
आददे वचसामन्ते मङ्गलालङ्कृतां सुताम् ॥
उत्तर:
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q21
He, having thought in his mind after reflection – ‘this would be the proper reply to this’ – took hold of his daughter, auspiciously adorned, at the conclusion of the (sage’s) speech.

प्रश्न 22.
अलब्धमीहेद् धर्मेण लब्धं यत्नेन पालयेत्।
पालितं वर्धयेन्नित्यं वृद्धं पात्रेषु निक्षिपेत्॥
उत्तर:
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q22
Aspire righteously for what has not been gained, protect with effort what has already been obtained. Regularly enhance what has been protected and deposit with the worthy what has been enhanced.

प्रश्न 23.
यथोर्णनांभिः सृजते।
उत्तर:
इदं वाक्यं ‘द्वे विद्ये वेदितव्ये’ इति पाठात् उद्धृतम् ।
वाक्यमिदं आङ्गिरसः शौनकं प्रति अवदत् ।

प्रश्न 24.
अहिंसैव धर्ममार्गः।
उत्तर:
इदं वाक्यं ‘विवादः विनाशाय’ इति पाठात् उद्धृतम् ।
इदं वाक्यं तीक्ष्णदंष्ट्रो नाम अरण्यमार्जारः शीघ्रगकपिअलाभ्यां प्रति अवदत्।

प्रश्न 25.
यक्षः ताटकाख्यां सुतां लेभे।
उत्तर:
इदं वाक्यं ‘महर्षिवचनपालनम्’ इति पाठात् उद्धृतम् ।
वाक्यमिदं विश्वामित्रः रामं प्रति अवदत् ।

प्रश्न 26.
इदानीं तु निद्रासमयः।
उत्तर:
इदं वाक्यं ‘ज्यौतिषिकस्य दिनम्’ इति गद्यभागात् उद्धृतम् ।
इदं वाक्यं ज्यौतिषिकः स्वभार्यां प्रति अवदत्।

प्रश्न 27.
न खलु न खलु विषादः कार्यः।
उत्तर:
इदं वाक्यं ‘सान्तःपुरः शरणागतोऽस्मि’ इति पाठात् उद्धृतम् ।
वाक्यमिदं दामोदरः गोपकन्यकां प्रति अवदत्।

प्रश्न 28.
नाहं विस्मरामि तवोपकारम् ।
उत्तर:
इदं वाक्यं ‘सन्मित्रम्’ इति पाठात् उद्धृतम् ।
इदं वाक्यं देवव्रतः वाचिकमित्रं प्रति अवदत् ।

प्रश्न 29.
ताटका वृत्तान्तः।
उत्तर:
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q29

But, Viswamitra cited the example of Manthara, daughter of Virochana, being killed by Indra for her crimes against the earth, and also that of Bhargava’s (sage Sukra’s) mother i.e., the wife of Bhrugu, being killed by the Lord Vishnu. He thus removed Rama’s great perplexity about the killing of Tataka. Rama gave word to kill Tataka.

At that time, the terrible demoness, Tataka, red with blood-mud, blocked up the path of the sage Viswar Jitra with vehemence, like the evening, red with the vermilion dust, signifying the destruction of the flesh-eating demons. (The evening is also the mealtime of the demons).

She was the one who, by killing people freely, made the spacious crossroads of the city of death jammed by the playful crowds of the servants of the Death-god, because of her deeds. As the roar of Tataka entered Rama’s ear, so also the string of his bow reached his ear with a desire to kill her. Tanaka made her life an exciting appetising drink to Rama’s arrow.

प्रश्न 30.
अङ्गिरसः हिमवन्तं किम् अवोचत्?
उत्तर:
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q30

Hear, then, the business which has brought us here. It is, however, your own business; but we are participators in this by our advising in beneficial matters (i.e., in as much as we have to advise you in what is to your benefit).
That Shiva himself, the witness of the doings of the world and the giver of desired objects, asks for your daughter, through us (by words addressed through us).
You will then do well to unite him with your daughter, like sense with words: for, a daughter given to a good husband is not to be regretted by (i.e., is no matter of regret for) the father.
Let all these creatures, immovable and movable – as many as they are – consider her their mother; for, Shiva is the father of the universe.
Uma is the bride; you, her giver in marriage; here are we soliciting her; and Shiva is the bridegroom: This combination (of circumstances) is enough for the exaltation of your family.
By forming an alliance through your daughter, be the father (-in-law) of the father of the universe, who praises none, but is praised by all, who adores none, but is adored by all.

प्रश्न 31.
जौतिषिकस्य दिनम् इति पाठस्य सारांशं लिखत।
उत्तर:
‘ज्यौतिषिकस्य दिनम्’ इति पाठ्यभागे, ज्यौतिषस्य लेशमपि अजानन् अपि ज्यौतिषिकः ऊहाभिः मिश्रितेन सहजज्ञानेन जनानां भविष्यं वदति। तथापि जनाः तस्य वचनैः तुष्यन्ति। पूर्व स्वप्ने अपि तेन न चिन्तितम् आसीत् यत् कदापि भाविनि जीवने ज्यौतिषिको भवेयम् इति। ग्रामे एव यदि वासः कृतः स्यात् तर्हि सः पूर्वजवत् कृषिकः एव अभविष्यत्। परन्तु बन्धूनपि अनुक्त्वा तेन गृहं परित्यज्य लघुपत्तनम् आगतम्। अनन्यगतिकतया तेन कदाचित् ज्यौतिषिकवृत्तिः आश्रिता।।

एकदा कञ्चित् पथिकः विश्रान्तिम् इच्छन् वटवृक्षम् उपागतः। ज्यौतिषिकः तं ग्राहकः इति मत्वा तस्य करं अन्धकारे द्रष्टुं प्रयतमानः ‘भवतः भाग्यरेखाः ……’ इति वक्तुम् आरभत। ‘मम वचनैः यदि तुष्टिः स्यात् तर्हि विंशतिरूप्यकाणि दीयन्ताम्’ इति अवदत्। यावत् पान्थः धूमवार्तिकां प्राज्वालयत्, तावता मुहूर्तं पथिकस्य मुखं तेन लक्षितम्। तदा ज्यौतिषिक किश्चित् व्यग्रो भूत्वा स्यूतं स्वीकृत्य उत्थातुम् उद्युक्तः। तदा पान्थ तस्य हस्तं गृहीत्वा ‘मम एकस्यैव प्रश्नस्य उत्तरं वद किमहं मम अन्वेषणे सफलो भवेयम्’ इति क्रोधेन अपृच्छत् । तदा ज्यौतिषिकः तस्य पूर्ववृत्तातं सर्वम् अकथयत् ।
‘अद्य रात्रौ एव ग्राम प्रति प्रतिष्ठताम्। इतः परं यदि त्वं ग्रामात् निर्गच्छे: तर्हि तव पुनः प्राणसङ्कटं भवेत्’ इत्यपि अवदत्। पान्धः ज्यौतिषिकस्य हस्ते कानिचित् धनपत्राणि निक्षिप्य निर्गतः।
वस्तुतस्तु पुरा गुरुनायक ज्यौतिषिकयोः मध्ये कलहः अभवत् तदा ज्यौतिषिकः गुरुनायकं छुरिकया विदार्य सः मृतः इति मत्वा तं कूपे पातायित्वा तदर्थमेव गृहं परित्यज्य अत्र आगत्य वासः आरब्धः।

1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q31

In the lesson ‘ज्यौतिषिकस्य दिनम्’ the astrologer was devoid of any professional training. Still, he carried on his business based on guesswork of what people wanted to hear. He never wanted to be an astrologer. Had he continued living in his village, he would have carried on the work of his forefathers, namely farming. However, one day he left his village without saying a word to his family members and settled as an astrologer in a small town.

Once he had an encounter with a person just as he was winding up his day’s work. The stranger told the astrologer that he wanted to hear the answer to his single question, whether or not he would succeed in his present search. The astrologer sent up a prayer to heaven as the stranger lit a cheroot. The astrologer caught a glimpse of his face by the match light and recognised him as his enemy Gurunayak in that dim light. The astrologer hesitated for a few moments. Then he asked the stranger if he was once pushed into a well and left for dead. The stranger was surprised when the astrologer addressed him by name. The astrologer advised him to return to his village, as he foresaw great danger to his life if he stayed in the city.

The man left, giving the astrologer a handful of notes, and the astrologer went home. After dinner, the astrologer and his wife discussed the day’s events. He told her that a burden had been lifted off him that day. He further said that he thought he had killed a man many years ago, and that was why he left his village. He told her that he had now seen the man alive. The incident had taken place when he was a youngster when a drunken quarrel over a gambling debt had gone too far. Therefore he had left his village and settled as an astrologer in this town.

प्रश्न 32.
यमुनाह्रदः।
उत्तर:
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q32

Within the river Yamuna, there was a great lake, and in that lake, the black serpent Kaliya used to live with his family. This lake within the Yamuna was bubbling, boiling and foaming with poisonous fumes, due to the poison of Kaliya. All plants, birds and trees of that region had perished due to: the poisonous air of the lake. The tigers, wild boars and elephants that drank the water of the pool died on the spot. The people who lived in that region were leading a fearful life.

प्रश्न 33.
सेनजित् तथा देवव्रतस्य सम्भाषणं लिखत।
उत्तर:
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q33

Once, in the court of the king Senajit, there was a conference of scholars, poets and pundits well versed in various branches of learning. There arose arguments between them. The minister Devavrata said – “It is not possible for a king to be on par with a scholar. A learned scholar, by virtue of his scholarship, is respected not only in his country but also in other countries but a king is not. A king is respected only in his country. Without accepting the words of the minister, Senajit said – It is the king who deserves worship and the scholar does not deserve respect. Show the proof of your argument. ‘Yes’, said the minister, and maintained silence. But, the king, without thinking, ordered the minister to leave the country immediately.

प्रश्न 34.
‘श्री’ महोदयस्य आदर्शमयं जीवनम्।
अथवा
जीव विज्ञानं परिसर विज्ञानं च अधिकृत्य लघुटिप्पण्यौ रचयत।
उत्तर:
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q34

B.M. Srikantaiah was born on 3rd January 1884 as the son of Mylarayya and Bhagirathamma. Shri first studied Physics and then English. Still, his love for Kannada language diminish. He was not only interested in serving Kannada but also put in continuous efforts in elevating it. He started his career as an English Professor. Protecting the sanctity of his career he was always engrossed in learning and remained a student till the end.

All the well-known poets and writers of Kannada language were his students. The love Shri had for his students remained unparalleled. He always encouraged bright and talented students by praising them. Prof.A.N. Murthyrao, the popular Kannada writer, was a student par excellence of Shri. When he was his student he would show all the articles written by him in English to his teacher. Having read the articles, in the classroom he praised the student wholeheartedly thus: “This kind of excellent composition is not possible even from me”. Thus, he used to appreciate the talent of his students.

Kuvempu, known as ‘Rashtrakavi’ and the winner of the Jnanapith award, was a student of Shri. In 1937 Shri was the president of the Kannada Sahitya Sammelana held at Kalburgi. At the sammelana, the drama ‘Gadhayuddha’ was enacted as also Kuvempu’s ‘Yamana Solu’. The organizers came up on the stage to garland Shri. But, Shri himself called Kuvempu on the stage and garlanded him. Such was the kind of encouragement he gave his students. This is worthy of emulation by all.

The dream of Bharat Ratna Sir M.Visveshwariah came true in 1915 with the inauguration of Kannada Sahitya Parishat. Shri served as the president of Kannada Sahitya Parishat and devoted his entire life in protecting, preserving and enriching Kannada literature. He worked constantly in this direction. Thus, his life is ideal for others.
अथवा
1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q35

We see the growth of Sanskrit since the Vedic period. Side-by-side even science developed. Our ancestors were not only great thinkers but also scholars and pundits. During the period several books were written. Let us try to know the great achievements of Indians in Astronomy, Mathematics, Biology and Environmental Science.

Astronomy and Mathematics:
Advanced thinking can be seen in Astronomy and Mathematics. The earliest references to astronomy are found in the Rig Veda. We see the reference to the ten planets of the solar system in the Vedas. The red spot in the planet Jupiter is extremely amazing and it is possible to see it in the modern photographs taken through the telescope. Information such as separation of the two satellites Mars and Earth from the moon, the revolution of planets around the Sun, the gravitational pull of the Earth are found in the Vedas.

The modern scientists are under the illusion that these are their discoveries. Our ancestors knew well that planets move like a spinning top. That planets revolve in their own axis was known to them. They also knew the fact that the Sun is the source of energy on the earth and the basis of earth. We also see the reference to the day, night, month, season, phases and years
That the waxing and waning of the moon and its luminaries depend entirely on the Sun was known to them.

It is a matter of pride that the concept of numbers and the base ten systems being used all over the world today have been the greatest contributions of Indians. Another special feature is blending of the numerals through padas or words. It was necessary essentials to erect different types of sacrificial altars for different sacrifices. Hence, to build such altars they knew different types of geometrical designs, their area, modifications, etc. Hence, this field was known than itself. Indians were forerunners in Algebra, explanation and analysis of equations, especially simultaneous equations.

A simultaneous equation with many variables, use of geometry in Algebra and exposition of Geometry through Algebra are examples of their vast knowledge. This land became fertile on account of great masters like Aryabhatta, Brahmagupta, Mahavira, Sridhara, Bhaskaracharya and others. Amongst them, Bhaskaracharya il excels. His speciality is that the problems are posed by describing the beauty of natural objects. This field has expanded from the days of great masters like Aryabhatta, Brahmagupta, Mahavira, Sridhara, Bhaskaracharya to the modern mathematician Srinivas Ramanujan. Because of the contribution of all, it has spread widely. Biology and Environmental Science:

Our ancestors have contributed immensely to the field of Biology. They classified plants and animals on the basis of their nature/quality. Independent works such as ‘Treatise on Horses’ and ‘Treatise on Elephants’ have been written. Davina is known to be a specialist in the study of serpents. There are references to his expertise in 13 varieties of serpents. They considered the protection of the environment as their primary duty.

They perceived God in everything – Sun, trees, water, wind, earth etc. They always considered polluting or destroying the nature/environment as a sin. The ancestors did everything keeping in mind the uses and protection of plants and animals. That is why they used to say that planting five mango trees will prevent an individual from going to hell. In the construction of wells, lakes and other sources of water their contribution was really great. Not only in construction but also in their maintenance they were devoted and dedicated. They inflicted/levied fine on those who polluted the place and punished them too.

They had a law for the purpose. In this way, they protected the groundwater level. Works like ‘Aryabhatiyam’ written by Aryabhata, Panchasiddhantika’ and ‘Brihatsamhita’ by Varahamihira, ‘Kakshaputatantram’ relating to Chemistry by Nagarjuna, works on Ayurveda by Charaka and Sushruta, ‘Siddhanta Siromani’ of Bhaskaracharya bear ample testimony to the intelligence of ancient Indians. Let us all devote ourselves to the study of these works.

VI. एतासां कृतीनां कवीनां नाम सूचयत (संस्कृतभाषया)। (5 × 1 = 5)

प्रश्न 35.

कुमारसम्भवम् ।
महाभारतम्।
मालतीमाधवः।
सौन्दर्यलहरी।
हितोपदेशः।

उत्तर:

कालिदासः
व्यासः
भवभूतिः
शङ्कराचार्यः
नारायणपण्डितः

i) पञ्चमहाकाव्यानि।
उत्तर:
भूमिका
अथवा
ii) संस्कृतनाटकानि।
उत्तर:
भूमिका

VII. मभूषातः सूक्तं पदं चित्वा रिक्तंस्थानं पूरयत। (1 × 3 = 3)

धर्मः, बहूनि, परा ।

प्रश्न 37.

…….. यया तदक्षरम् अधिगम्यते।
रामो विग्रहवान् …………
…………. अहानि अतिक्रान्तानि ।

उत्तर:

परा
धर्मः
बहूनि

VIII. संयोजयत – (1 × 4 = 4)

प्रश्न 38.
अ – आ
i) सत्यवहः – अ) कृष्णः
ii) सौमित्रिः – आ) पर्वतराजः।
iii) मेना – इ) भारद्वाजः।
iv) दामोदरः – ई) लक्ष्मणः।
उत्तरः
i – इ; ii – ई; iii – आ; iv – अ।

IX. रेखाङ्कितानि पदानि आश्रित्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत (द्वयोः) (1 × 2 = 2)

प्रश्न 39.

नदीतीरे धर्मवादी तिष्ठति ।
हनूमान् केसरिणः क्षेत्रे जातः।
रामः स्त्रीवधशङ्काम् अकरोत् ।

उत्तर:

धर्मवादी कुत्र तिष्ठति?
हनूमान् कस्य क्षेत्रे जातः?
कः स्त्रीवधाशङ्काम् अकरोत्?

X. एतेषाम् उपप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतभाषया लिखत (षण्णामेव) (6 × 2 = 12)

प्रश्न 40.
सन्धिं विभजत (द्वयोः)
चैव, तत्रापरा, पुनरपि।
उत्तरः

चैव = च + एव ।
तत्रापरा = तत्र + अपरा।
पुनरपि = पुनः + अपि।

प्रश्न 41.
सन्धिं योजयत (द्वयोः)
देव + ऋषिः, कन्या + इयम्, मा + अस्तु।
उत्तरः

देव + ऋषिः = देवर्षिः।
कन्या + इयम् = कन्येयम् ।
मा + अस्तु = मास्तु।

प्रश्न 42.
रिक्तस्थाने सूक्तं विभक्तिरूपं लिखत। (द्वयोः)

पत्रस्य पत्रयोः ……….
रामम् रामौ ………
…… राज्ञोः राज्ञाम्।

उत्तर:

पत्राणाम्
रामान्
राज्ञः

प्रश्न 43.
रिक्तस्थाने सूक्तं क्रियापदरूपं लिखत। (द्वयोः)

………… विद्यते विद्यन्ते।
उत्तिष्ठ ………… उत्तिष्ठत।
अस्ति स्तः ………….।

उत्तर:

विद्येते
उत्तिष्ठतम्
सन्ति

प्रश्न 44.
विग्रहवाक्यं लिखत। (द्वयोः)
ज्योष्ठपुत्रः, धर्मोपदेशकः, मकरालयम्।
उत्तरः

ज्योष्ठपुत्रः = ज्येष्ठश्चासौ पुत्रश्च ।
धर्मोपदेशकः = धर्मस्य उपदेशकः ।
मकरालयम् = मकराणाम् आलयः तम्।

प्रश्न 45.
समस्तपदं लिखत। (द्वयोः)
स्वस्य देशे, महान् च असौ कपिः च, वीराणां पानम् ।
उत्तरः

स्वस्य देशे = स्वदेशे।
महान् च असौ कपिः च = महाकपिः।
वीराणां पानम् = वीरपाणम्।

प्रश्न 46.
पदपरिचयं कुरुत (द्वयोः)
क्रीडत्, योक्तुम्, विज्ञेयः।
उत्तरः

क्रीडत् = भूतकृदन्तः।
योक्तुम् = तुमुन्नन्ताव्ययम् ।
विज्ञेयः = विध्यर्थककृदन्तः।

प्रश्न 47.
समानार्थकपदं लिखत।
पवनः, विद्वान्।
उत्तरः

पवनः = अनिलः।
विद्वान् = पण्डितः।

प्रश्न 48.
विरुद्धार्थकपदं लिखत।
तमः, विषम्।
उत्तरः

तमः = प्रकाशः।
विषम् = अमृतम्।

XI. संस्कृतभाषया अनुवदत – (1 × 4 = 4)

प्रश्न 49.
i)
A fruit falls from the tree.
उत्तरः
वृक्षात् फलं पतति।

ii)
These mango fruits are very sweet.
उत्तरः
एतनि अम्रफलानि बहु मधुराणि।

iii)
Children play in the garden.
उत्तरः
माणवकाः उद्याने क्रीडन्ति।

iv)
India vows global peace.
उत्तरः
भारतदेशः जागतिकशान्त्यर्थं यतते।

प्रश्न 50.
कन्नडभाषया आङ्ग्लभाषया वा अनुवदत। (1 × 4 = 4)

1st PUC Sanskrit Model Question Paper 2 with Answers Q50

XII. परिच्छेदमिमं पठित्वा प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि लिखत – [4]

प्रश्न 51.
कश्चित् अन्धः रात्रौ विपणिमार्गेण गच्छति स्म। सः अतीव बुद्धिमान् तथा विनयवान् च आसीत्। सः दक्षिणहस्ते दण्डमधारयत्। वामहस्तेन च प्रदीपं एकम् अवहत्। तस्य पुरः कश्चित् कुटिलमतिः कुमारः अभ्यागच्छत्। कुमारः अन्धं दृष्ट्वा चेष्टां कर्तुम् ऐच्छत्। अतः अपृच्छत् कस्मात् त्वं अन्धः सन् दीपं वहसि। किमनेन ते प्रयोजनम् इति। इदं श्रुत्वा अन्धः खिन्नः अभवत्। बालः प्रहासार्थं अपृच्छत् इति ज्ञात्वा भद्र सत्यं न मे दीपेन प्रयोजनम्। तथापि रात्रौ दीपेन मां पश्यन् कोऽपि मयि न निपतिष्यति। तस्मात् मया धृतो दीपः इति अवदत्। कुमारः तद्वचनं श्रुत्वा लज्जितः तूष्णीं गतः।
प्रश्नाः

अन्धः कीदृशः आसीत्?
अन्धः दक्षिणहस्ते किम् अधारयत्?
अन्धः प्रदीपं केन हस्तेन आवहत्?
कः तूष्णीं गतः?

उत्तरः

अन्धः अतीव बुद्धिमान् तथा विनयवान् च आसीत्?
अन्धः दक्षिणहस्ते दण्डम् अधारयत्।
अन्धः प्रदीपं वामहस्तेन आवहत्।
कुमारः लज्जितः तूष्णीं गतः।

1st PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South)

January 1, 2025

Students can Download 1st PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South), Karnataka 1st PUC Political Science Model Questions with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 (South)

Time: 3:15 Hours
Max. Marks: 100

I. Answer the following questions in ONE sentence each: (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Which is the root word of Political Science?
Answer:
Greek word ‘polis’.

Question 2.
Which is called as an agent of the state?
Answer:
Government

Question 3.
What is sovereignty?
Answer:
Supreme power of the state is called sovereignty

Question 4.
Give the best example for rigid constitution.
Answer:
America

Question 5.
Who was the Chairman of Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Dr.B.R.Ambedkar

Question 6.
What are the two Houses of Indian Parliament?
Answer:
Loksabha and Rajyasabha

Question 7.
What is the term of office of Governor?
Answer:
5 years

Question 8.
Who elect the Vice President of India?
Answer:
Members of both houses of the Parliament.

Question 9.
Who is the Present Chief Justice of India?
Answer:
Ranjan Gogoi

Question 10.
Expand PIL
Answer:
Public Interest Litigation

II. Answer any Ten of the following questions in 2-3 sentences each. (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 11.
Define Political Science
Answer:
According to Garries “Political Science deals with the origin development purpose and all political problems of state”.

Question 12.
Who are called the Greek philosopher Trio?’
Answer:
Socrates, Plato, and Aristotle.

Question 13.
Name the four Elements of State
Answer:
Definite Territory, Population, Sovereignty, Government.

Question 14.
What if Ordinance and who Promulgtes it?
Answer:
The order issues to meet unforeseen situations when parliament is not in session is called ordinance. Head of the executive promulgtes the ordinance.

Question 15.
Write the meaning of Equality.
Answer:
Every individual should be given equal opportunities for self development is called equality.

Question 16.
Mention any two features of Dictatorship government.
Answer:

State is absolute
Force and fear.

Question 17.
What is thesmeaning of Parliamentary Government?
Answer:
Executive is the creation of Legislature and is responsible to it, it is called Parliamentary government.

Question 18.
What do you mean by Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
All the adult citizens can exercise their voting power without the discrimination jof caste, creed, religion, gender, it is called Universal Adult Franchise.

Question 19.
Write the qualification for membership of the RajyaSabha.
Answer:

Must be a citizen of India.
Must have attained the age, of 30 years.
Must not hold any, office of profit.
Must not be md, lunatic and criminal

Question 20.
Name the three types of emergencies which the president can promulgate?
Answer:

National emergency
Presidential rule on states
Financial emergency

Question 21.
What is LokAdalat?
Answer:
The courts which are formed to settle the disputes through mediation and at affortable price, it is called Lok Adalat.

Question 22.
Name any two standing committees of ZiftaPanchayat.
Answer:

General Committee
Social justice Committee

III. Answer any EIGHT of the following question in 15-20 sentences each : (8 × 5= 40)

Question 23.
Explain briefly the importance of study of Political Science in the contemporary world?
Answer:
Aristotle says that man by nature is a social animal. He born in society, live in society and die in society only. To fulfill his needs, he created society. In society only he can enjoy all the facilities love and affection. Away from society he maybe God or ghost.

Man is a social being at the same time he is a political being also. He is a selfish, egoist and quarrelsome by nature. The attitudes of selfish, egoist and jealousy of a man leads to anarchy in the society while leading the life. So the order of the society may be disrupted and man cannot lead his life happily and peacefully. In order to control the bad behavior of such people and establish a peaceful society, there should be rules and regulations.

The state has emerged to frame and implement these rules through its agency “The Government”. So the state controles the political activities of the human being and restore peace in the society. The subject which studies about state, government, the political activities of human being is regarded as political science.

Question 24.
State the relations and differentiations between state and Society.
Answer:

State

Society

1. State is supreme institution.

2. State originated after the society.

3. Scope of state is limited.

4. Definite Territory is essential for the state.

5. State consists of organized people

6. State has sovereignty.

7. State functions through the government.

8. State is one of the association in the society.

9. Membership of state is compulsory.

10. State Studies about Political system.

11. State controls our external relations.

12. Rules of the state are compulsory.

13. State has the power to punish the people.

14. State has legal system.

1. Society is not supreme Institution

2. Society originated prior state.

3. Scope of society is wider.

4. Definite territory is not essential for society.

5. Society consists of both organized and unorganized people.

6. Society has no sovereignty.

7. Society has no government

8. Society has many associations of which state is one.

9. Membership of society is obligatory

10. Society studies about social system.

11. Society influences on our internal relations.

12. The rules of society are not compulsory.

13. Society cannot punish the people.

14. Society has no legal system.

Question 25.
Explain the kinds of liberty?
Answer:
1. National Liberty:
It is associated with french thinker J.J. Rousseau. Access to this type men in the state of nature were completely free and there were no restrictions. This doesn’t. exist in modem social life.

2. Civil liberty:
It is enjoyed by all the individuals in society. It consists of certain rights and privileges created and protected by the state.

3. Political Liberty:
This liberty is available only to the citizen either directly or indirectly participate in the political activities of the state. In short, a person makes or destroys the government.

4. Economic Liberty:
Without economic liberty, other liberty, other liberties are meaningless and useless. It means liberty of security and opportunities to find reasonable significance in the livelihood.

5. National Liberty:
This liberty implies the political independence of the state. All other liberties can’t be enjoyed unless the country is independent.

Question 26.
Describe the features of written constitution.
Answer:
The features of written constitution are explained below.

A written constitution is written in the document by the constituent assembly.
It is deliberately framed by the constitutional experts.
It came in to effect from a particular date.
In the w ritten form of constitution, all the provisions relating to the organization of the government, rights, and duties of the citizens are clearly mentioned.
In this system, the amendment procedure is very difficult and rigid.
Written constitution provides the provisions of independence of judiciary.
In the written constitution all provisions are clearly mentioned and the contents are in precise.

Question 27.
Explain the features of Federal Government.
Answer:
1. Division of Powers:
A federal government is characterized by the existence of two governments- the centre and the local government created on the basis of division of powers. Both are independent and autonomous within their spheres of powers and yet interdependent. The residuary powers rests with the centre in some states (e.g. India) and in the hands of local units in some states (e.g. Great Britain).

2. Supremacy of the constitution:
In a Federal system, the power enjoyed by the centre and local units is original because both derive their powers from the constitution. This avoids any confusion or contention in sharing of power. The division of powers is based on necessity and convenience

3. Written and rigid constitution:
The constitution in a federal government would definitely be rigid because it has to deal with powers related to both centre and local governments. Each and every’ detail should be explained in a written form in order to avoid any clash of jurisdiction or possible over-lapping of responsibilities. The amendment procedure would be rigid which protects the interest of the federation from frequent, mindless changes to the constitution.

4. Special provision for settlement of disputes:
In a presidential system, in order to settle disputes arising between the states or between centre and the states, the judiciary has been assigned the job of interpreting the provisions of the constitution, thus acting as custodian and guardian of the constitution.

5. Power of amendment:
In a presidential system, to amend the constitution both the centre and the local governments have been assigned with equal powers. No constitutional amendment can be made without the consent of federal units.

Question 28.
Write the text of the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The preamble of the constitution of India explains the aims and ideology and reads as:
WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN, DEMOCRATIC, SOCIALIST, SECULAR and REPUBLIC Nation and securing to all its citizens.

JUSTICE- social, economic and political.
LIBERTY- of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
EQUALITY- of status and of opportunity and to promote among them all.
FRATERNITY- assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and the integrity of the Nation.

The idea of the preamble has been borrowed from constitution of U.S.A.

Question 29.
List out the Fundamental duties of citizen of India.
Answer:
The 42^nd amendment has incorporated a number of fundamental duties.

Abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the national flag and, national anthem.
Uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
Defend the country and render national service.
Promote common brotherhood and harmony.
Value and preserve our composite culture.
Protect the natural environment.
Develop the scientific temper.
Strive towards excellence in all sphere

Question 30.
Discuss the Powers and Functions of Vidhan Sabha.
Answer:
There is a legislative assembly for every state. The number of members depends upon the population of the state. But it can not have less than 60 and more than 500 members. The members are chosen by direct election by people of state. The governor has been given power to nominate one or two members of the Anglo Indian community legislative assembly is five years.

The powers and functions of Vidhanasabha are as follows:
1. Legislative Functions:
The Legislative Assembly is entitled to pass laws on all subjects that fall under the state list such as police, public health, education, local-self governments, etc. Without the consent of the Vidhanasabha, no bill can become a law.

Though the Vidhanasabha is competent enough to make laws on subjects listed in the concurrent list along with the central legislature, if parliament passes a law contained in the concurrent list, the legislative assembly is not competent to pass a law on the same subject. However, some bills require the previous permission of the President before they are introduced in the state legislature.

In case of breakdown of constitutional machinery’ in a state or when the proclamation of emergency is in operation, parliament has the power of making laws on matters falling under the state list. In case of a conflict between state law and the law of the parliament, the law of the parliament shall supreme.

2. Financial Functions:
The Vidhanasabha enjoys total control over the finance of the state. No new tax can be levied or collected without the consent of the Vidhanasabha. The authority of the Vidhanasabha over Vidhanaparishad is strengthened by the fact that a Money bill or Financial bill can only originate in the Vidhanasabha and the Vidhanaparishad can at the most delay it by 14 days but cannot reject or amend the Bill.

The annual income-expenditure statement of the year the Budget must get the approval of the Vidhanasabha. Even year during March-April, the beginning of the financial year, it is the responsibility of the government to place the budget before the house and seek its approval.

3. Control over the Executive (Administration):
The Vidhanasabha enjoys direct control over the administration, as the executive is directly, collectively, responsible to the Vidhanasabha and remains in office as long as they enjoy confidence of the house. The members of the house can seek information from the government through questions and supplementary questions.

It is the responsibility of the ministers to clarify points raised by members and give satisfactory explanation. Any attempt to lie or mislead the house is. considered an offense against the house punishable under Contempt of the House.

The debating occasions such as the Question Hour, Adjournment motion, the Emergency Adjournment motion, the Zero Hour, the Cut motion, the Call-attention motion keeps the executive under constant check and the executive must be alert and ready with answers. However, ministers can ask for time to answer questions. The most effective weapon in the hands of the Vidbana sabha is the No-confidence motion, which can bring down a government.

4. Electoral Functions:
The members of the Vidhana sabha along with the members of the parliament constitute an electoral college to elect the President of India. They also take part in electing the members of Rajyasabha and also of the members of Legislative council.
.
5. Constituent Functions:
The state legislative assembly takes part in amending a few constitutional provisions. The Assembly does not initiate any amendment to constitution neither does it has such powers. But ratification of at least not less than half of the State legislative assemblies is necessary for amending certain provisions of the constitution.

For instance, if there has to be an amendment made to electoral procedure of electing president of India then it has to be ratified by 1/2 of the states, which in turn is done by state legislative assemblies.

Question 31.
Explain the Powers and Functions of Chief Minister.
Answer:
The functions of the Chief Minister is so powerful that he is referred to as “the first among equals” (Primus intersperses). Article 164 of the constitution states that “there shall be a Council of ministers headed by the Chief Minister for the state”.

The Chief Minister is elected from among the members of the majority party in Vidhana Sabha. In case no party enjoys majority it is left to the discretion of the Governor to pick the Chief Minister, who in his opinion will prove majority in a stipulated time. Traditionally, the Chief Minister should be from the Vidhanasabha.

The Chief Minister enjoys the authority to pick and choose his ministry because he is responsible for efficiency and performance of the government.

2. Allocation of Portfolios:
After forming the ministry the next important task is allocation of responsibilities to ministers. Certain key or heavyweight portfolios such Home, Revenue, Finance, Industry, Public works are to be given to key and heavyweights who enjoy clout and following among party worker. Also to ensure efficiency and stability of the government. The Chief Minister enjoys the power of expanding and reforming the ministry.

The Chief Minister has the authority to decide the matters to be taken up by the cabinet and may accept or reject proposals. Normally the proposals brought by ministers for discussion are not rejected. In the era of coalition politics, it is a challenge for the Chief Minister to hold the flock together. It is very difficult to chair a cabinet meeting full of divergent views, ideologies, and principles.

5. Leader of the Government:
The decisions of the government however good, are subjected to scrutiny and criticism. The opposition parties lose their identity if they do not criticize the government. So to guard against it, the Chief Minister, as leader of the government has to defend policies and programmes of the government both in and out of legislature.

6. Coordination and Supervision:
In running the administrative machinery Chief Minister will have to encounter numerous problems ranging from routine to serious. Under the circumstances, it is essential to integrate different departments and see that they work smoothly and the ability of the Chief Minister is tested on this count.

A Chief Minister should not only pick a team but also retain it as a team till the end of the term. Whenever problems arise between departments, he has to meditate and sort it out amicably through dialogue and goodwill.

The Chief Minister is the general head of the government. Hence he has the responsibility of supervising the administration. Though each minister is in charge of a ministry, lack of general supervision results in poor administrative quality.

To maintain quality in administration, the Chief Minister will have to supervise it, not only gives him a general feel of the administration but also makes the ministers more responsible. The Chief Minister may correct the working of a particular ministry and offer suggestions.

7. Bridge between the Governor and the State Legislature:
The Chief Minister acts as a link between the Governor and state legislature in a parliamentary government. As all executive powers are vested in the hands of the Crovemor, the Chief Minister is duty bound to keep the Governor informed about the decisions taken by the government.

9. Power of Appointment:
Though civil appointments are made by the Governor, it is based on recommendation of the Chief Minister.

Question 32.
Mention the measures necessary to ensure the Independence of the Judiciary?
Answer:
In order to ensure independence of judicial system in India, the following steps have been taken so that the judicial officers are not under pressure in discharging their duties.

1. The Constitution has made it obligatory on the part of the President to consult the Chief Justice of India in appointing a judge of Supreme Court. This not only makes the appointment non-political but also saves judiciary from the influence of the executive (the council of ministers).

2. A judge of the Supreme Court cannot be removed from office by the President at his will, addressed to him. Thus, the legislative control over the executive ensures judicial independence.

3. A judge of the Supreme Court, though appointed by the President on the advice of the council of ministers, does not hold office during the pleasure of the President, but based on good behaviour. He can be removed only on charges of proven misbehavior or incapacity by a motion addressed to the President by the Parliament.

4. The salaries and allowances of the judges of the Supreme Court are determined by a law of parliament and is not subject to discussion. The salary and allowances of the judges cannot be reduced or varied to his disadvantage during his term of office. This means that he will not be in any way affected by any law made by the parliament since the day of his appointment.

5. The administrative expenses of the Supreme court, the salaries and allowances of the judges and staff is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI), a corpus fund of Rs. 50 crore which may be enhanced from time to time, and it can not be voted in parliament.

6. Discussion of the conduct of the judges of the Supreme Court is not allowed in parliament except during removal of a judge This gives immunity from criticism.

7. A judge of the Supreme Court is not permitted to practice in any court in India after retirement. This prevents him from falling prey to temptations. To boost accountability in the judicial system, the Central Information Commission (CIC) has brought the office of the Chief Justice under the purview of the Right to Information Act (RTI).

Question 33.
Explain the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act.
Answer:
The 73^rd constitutional amendment act which came in to force on 1993 can be explained its provisions as below:

73^rd constitutional amendment act provides reservation to SC, ST, Backward class women.
The Panchayats can mobilize their revenue sources.
Elections should be need within 6 months.
The power to constitution of committees is rests with the state government.
Members of parliament and assembly are enjoying the membership in Panchayats.
The members of Panchayats have to elect by the elections.
lire age limit to contest the election is fixed to 21 years.
The state election commission is the authority to conduct the elections.
The Panchayats have power to impose tax.
State finance commission has been established to review the finances of Panchayats.
Panchayats can prepare and enforce the plans for economic and social development.

Question 34.
Mention the compulsory functions of the Mahanagara Palikas.
Answer:
According to Municipal Corporation Act of 1976, the functions of Corporation may be classified into

Obligatory functions
Discretionary functions

1. Obligatory functions:

Construction and maintenance of public roads, streets, bridges, markets, drains, dispensaries, etc.
To make the boundaries of the Municipal Corporation limits.
Making arrangements for conservancy drainage, removal of garbage, etc.
Lighting and watering of public streets.
Supply of filtered water for drinking purposes and unfiltered water for other purp see.
Maintenance of public health, vaccination, etc.
Regulation of sale of food, drugs, milk, etc. ,
Establishing and maintaining schools for primary education etc.

2. Discretionary functions:

Construction and maintenance of libraries, museums, rest houses, gardens.
Taking census, arranging and maintaining means of transport.
Maintaining diary forms set up and maintain institutions for sick or incurable etc.
Organising and maintaining maternity and welfare centres for infant.

IV. Answer any two of the following in 30 to 40 sentences each: (2 × 10 = 20)

Question 35.
Explain the features of Presidential Government.
Answer:
In Presidential government, the Executive is not responsible to the legislature. It is based on the principle of ‘Separation of powers’. It is known as non-responsible system or fixed executive system. E.g. USA.
Features of presidential government.:
1. Separation of powers:
The Presidential government is based on Montesquieu concept of “separation of powers”. The concept of separation powers contend that the legislature, executive and judiciary must be independent of each other and function independently. Legislature performs the task of law making, executive law implementation and judiciary interpretation of laws.

2. Checks and Balances:
Presidential government is based on checks and balances. Though the legislature, executive and judiciary function independently, complete separation is not only desirable but also impractical. To maintain the exercise of power balanced, controlled and wide spread each organ is given a fair degree of power in one another ’s functional area.

3. Executive is not responsible to legislature:
The president in U S.A is directly elected by the people and hence is not responsible to legislature. The president can’t participate in the proceedings of the congress. He can neither initiate a bill nor pilots it. The President is not accountable to anyone but the constitution and the people.

4. Real Executive:
In presidential government, the president is directly elected by the people. The president is not only the real executive but also the head of government. He is directly responsible for all happenings in the country.

5. Secretaries directly responsible to president:
The secretaries known as presidents’ ‘Brain Trust’ are appointed by the president and stay in office as long as they enjoy the confidence of the president. The President may remove any secretary without assigning any reason. Secretaries are neither responsible to congress nor to the people but to the president. The President can hire or fire secretaries.

6. Fixed Tenure:
The President does not depend on the congress for his survival. He is directly elected for a period of 4 years and lasts his full term. He cannot be removed from office except on grounds of inefficiency and proven misbehavior through an impeachment motion.

Question 36.
Discuss the composition, Powers and functions of the Loksabha.
Answer:
The members of Lok Sabha are elected by the people. All adult citizens unless disqualified for other reasons have the right to select their representatives. Qualifications to become the members are must be a citizen of the country and must have attained the minimum age fixed by the constitution. The term of office is five years. Speaker is the presiding officer. He is elected from among the members of the house.

1. Legislative functions:
The power of Loksabha extends to all subjects falling under the Union List and the Concurrent list. In case of emergency in operation its power also extends to State list as well. No bill can become a law without the consent of Loksabha. The Loksabha has equal powers of law making with Rajyasabha except on financial ‘ matters where the supremacy of Loksabha is total.

In case of disagreement between the two houses on a matter of legislation, it is resolved by a Joint Sitting of both the houses presided over by the Speaker. In a Joint Sitting, Loksabha would emerge triumphant because tire decisions are taken by a majority of the total number of members of both the house present and voting in which the numerical superiority of Loksabha prevails.

2. Financial functions:
On financial matters, the supremacy of the Loksabha is total and complete. “One, who holds purse, holds power,” said James Madison. By establishing its authority over the national purse, Loksabha establishes its authority over the Rajyasabha.

3. Control over the executive:
The Loksabha enjoys direct control over the executive because executive is directly responsible to the lower house and stays in office as long as it enjoys the confidence of the house. The Loksabha not only makes laws but also supervises the implementation. The lower house being a debating house, the members are free to seek information from the executive and raise questions and seek clarifications.

5. Electoral functions:
]The Loksabha and Rajyasabha elect the highest constitutional- functionaries such as the President and the Vice-president. The President is elected by the members of Loksabha and Rajyasabha along with the members of Legislative Assemblies of the states. The Vice-president is elected by members of Loksabha and Rajyasabha.

6. Judicial functions:
The Loksabha acts as a judge in the impeachment of the President. Either house can prefer the charge of impeachment. If Rajyasabha prefers the charge, Loksabha investigates the charge and if it passes a resolution by a 2/3 majority of the total membership of the house. President stands impeached from the office.

Question 37.
Explain the powers and functions of Prime Minister of India
Answer:
The powers and function of the Prime minister are detailed below:
1. Formation of Ministry:
The primary task of the Prime minister on assuming office is the formation of Council of ministers. Normally ministers are picked from the same political formation to ensure uniformity and continuity of policy. However, nothing prevents Prime minister from picking anyone as minister.

2. Allocation of Portfolios:
After forming the ministry the next important task is allocation of responsibilities to ministers. Certain key or heavyweight portfolios such as Home, Defence, Finance, Commerce and Industry, External affairs, etc., are to be given to party heavyweights who enjoy good clout and following among the party workers. Also to ensure efficiency and stability of the government. Prime minister enjoys the power of expanding and reforming the ministry.

3. Chairman of the Cabinet:
The cabinet meetings are held under the chairmanship of the Prime minister. The Cabinet is a deliberating forum and differences may come up. It is the responsibility of Prime minister to mediate and soften things and arrive at decisions. The Prime minister has the authority to decide the matters to be taken up by the cabinet and may accept or reject proposals. Normally the proposals brought by ministers for discussion are not rejected.

In the era of coalition politics, it is a challenge for the Prime minister to hold the flock together. It is very difficult to chair a Cabinet full of divergent views, ideologies, and principles. For example, for the last fifteen years, we are a witness to pulls and pressures exerted on the Prime minister from different alliance partners.

4. Leader of Lok Sabha:
Prime minister is the leader of Lok sabha. All major decisions and announcements of the government are made by the Prime minister. It is the responsibility of the Prime minister to ensure that all bills brought before Lok sabha for approval are passed. And he has to defend the government on the floor of the house.

Though ministers are individually responsible to their ministries, it is the Prime minister who provides general leadership and direction. If any minister makes a mistake, the Prime minister has the power to guide and correct him.

5. Leader of the Government:
The decisions of the government however good, are subjected to scrutiny and criticism. The Prime minister, as leader of the government, has to defend policies and programs of the government both in and out of parliament.

6. Coordination and Supervision:
In running the administrative machinery Prime minister will have to encounter numerous problems ranging from routine to serious. Under the circumstances, it is essential to integrate different departments and see that they work smoothly and the ability of the Prime minister is tested on this count. A Prime minister should not only pick a team but also retain it as a team till the end of the term.

Whenever problems arise between departments, he has to meditate and sort it out amicably through dialogue and goodwill. The Prime minster is the general head of the government. Hence he has the responsibility of supervising the administration. Though each Minister is in charge of a ministry, lack of general supervision results in poor administrative quality.

To maintain quality in administration, the Prime minister will have to supervise. It not only gives him a general feel of the administration but also makes the ministers more responsible. The Prime Minister may correct the working of a particular ministry and offer suggestions.

7. Bridge between the President and the Parliament:
The Prime minister acts as a link between President and Parliament In a parliamentary government. As all executives powers are vested in the hands of the President, the Prime minister is duty bound to keep the President informed about the decisions taken by the government.

Also, the President himself can call for any information from the government. The Prime minister not only acts as a bridge but also as the advisor to the President. Whenever necessary the President will look forward for advice. For example, the President seeks the advice of Prime minister before dissolving Loksabha.

Question 38.
Describe the composition and powers of the Supreme Court of Indin.
Answer:
The President of India appoints the judges of the Supreme court on the advice of the council of ministers in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. Article 124 which deals with the appointment of judges, makes it obligatory on the part of the President of India to consult the Chief Justice of India.

The following are the powers of the Supreme Court:
I. Original Jurisdiction:
Article 131 of the constitution deals with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is so exclusive that no court in India can take up cases falling under the original jurisdiction.
The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is purely federal in character. Matters relating to the problems and disputes arising between the union and the states or between the states are taken up by the Supreme Court.
The disputes entertained under the original jurisdiction are:

A dispute involving the Government of India Vs the state of Union of India.
A dispute involving the Government of India plus one or more states Vs one or more states.
A dispute involving one or more states on one side Vs one or more states on the other.

2. Appellate Jurisdiction:
The Supreme Court is the highest court in India. Under Appellate jurisdiction, the Supreme court only takes up such cases that come on appeal. It has no power to take up such cases, which is not asked to take up.
The appellate jurisdiction can be studied under the following three heads:
a. Constitutional Cases:
The cases that come before the Supreme court are as follows:
The cases involving a question of law relating to the interpretation of the constitution or certification by the High court. The Supreme Court can take up a case if the High court in its opinion feels that the case involves substantial question of law, which should be decided by the Supreme court.

b. Civil Cases :
Originally Article 133 provided for an appeal against the high court order if it certified that the amount involved was less than Rs. 20,000 and the case is fit for appeal. But, the Law Commission found the logic unreasonable and as a result, the 30^th Amendment of 1972 did away with the ceiling of Rs. 20,000. The Supreme Court can take up the civil appeal, if the High court certifies that the case involves a substantial question law of general importance. The certification by the High court is essential in these cases.

c. Criminal Cases:
Article 134 provide for an appeal to the Supreme court against the judgment of the High Court under the following conditions:

If the High Court has reversed a decision of release of an accused and has given him a death sentence.
In a case where the High court has exercised the authority of a lower court and given a death sentence to the accused.
In any criminal case if the High court certifies that the case is fit for appeal in the Supreme Court.

The decision is entirely left to the discretion of the Supreme Court. This power, however, is to be used only under exceptional circumstances like matters involving general public interest or in cases of grave injustice or cases in which no appeal is otherwise provided by law.

4. Advisory Jurisdiction:
Article 143 confers the power of advisory opinion. In order to break authoritative opinion, the President of India may seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on the matter which is, in his opinion, important and necessary such as disputes arising out of treaty of agreement. However, the advice of the Supreme Court is purely advisory in nature and it is up to the executive to accept it or not. The Supreme Court may decline to give advisory opinion if it finds unnecessary.

5. Power of Judicial Review:
The supremacy of the Supreme Court as the guardian of the constitution is emphasized by the power of judicial review. The Supreme court has the power of declaring a law made by the legislature or an executive action as ultra vires (intra vires) or null and void’ or ‘unconstitutional if it is not in tune with the provisions of the constitution or violative of the fundamental law of the land.

This acts as an effective, check on both the legislature and the executive as any decision made or action taken whimsically without regard to the constitution is declared invalid.

7. The Contempt of court:
The Supreme Court enjoys the authority of imposing fine or imprisonment for violating the orders of the court (Article 129).

The writs are briefly explained as follows:
a. Habeas Corpus:
This literally means ‘to have a body’. It calls upon the authority’, which arrests a person to produce in court, the person to set him free if he has done nothing wrong. It protects an individual against wrongful confinement.

b. Mandamus:
This literally means a command. It is a command issued by the court asking a person to perform his legal duty, which is of public nature.

c. Prohibition:
It is a writ issued by the Supreme court to an inferior court restraining it from exercising powers which is not invested in them.

d. Certiorari:
It is a writ by which a case is removed from a lower court, which does note no jurisdiction to deal with it.

e. Quo warranto:
This writ is issued to prevent a person from illegally occupying a ’ public office to which he is not entitled.

11. Defender of the Federation:
The constitution vests the power of settling the disputes and problems between the centre and the states. In order to prevent the conflict of power between the two, the Supreme Court interprets the laws, which help in maintaining the unity of the federation.

12. Miscellaneous functions:
The following are the miscellaneous functions of the Supreme

The Supreme Court has the power of regulating the practice and procedure of the court.
It appoints its own clerical establishment and exercises supervision over lower courts.
The Supreme Court decides matters relating to the election of the President and Vice-president.
The Supreme Court if satisfied, may withdraw a case on its own or on appeal pending before one or more High courts on a matter involving substantial question of law of general importance (Article 139)
The Supreme Court, if necessary, can transfer any case pending before any High court to any other High court.
The Supreme Court may also transfer a criminal case from one high court

V. Answer any TWO of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 39.
Write a short note about Independence day celebration in your college,

List the kinds of Rights.
Answer:

Moral Rights
Legal Rights.
Civil Rights.
Political Rights.
Economic Rights.

Moral Rights: are those based on the ethical code of morality of people.
Legal Rights: are recognised and protected by the state.
civil rights: are those rights which enable the individual to lead a normal life in society.
Political rights: enable a citizen to take part in the affairs of the government.
Economic rights: enable citizens to earn their living.

Question 40.
Explain briefly functions of Gram Panchayat.
Answer:

Functions of gram panchayat.
Formulate plans for the development of Gram panchayat.
Preparation of Budget of Gram panchayat.
Collection and maintenance of necessary information and statistics relating to panchayat.
Provide relief during natural calamities like floods, famine or earthquakes.
Encouragement to agriculture.
Encouragement and development of poultry and pisciculture.
Support to khadi and cottage industries.
Protection of public health and support family welfare programmes.
Encouraging rural housing by providing houses and sites to weaker sections.
Promote cleanliness through underground drainage system.
Provide drinking water and prevent water pollution.
Construction and maintenance of roads, buildings, and bridges.
Rural electrification.
Encourage primary and higher education.
Support and implement poverty alleviation programmes.
Support adult education and informal education.
Construction and maintenance of libraries and reading rooms.
Regulation of market and fairs.
Strive for the welfare of women and children.
Strive for welfare of weaker sections.
Preserv action of Public distribution system
Maintenance of public gardens and stadiums.
Maintenance of graveyards.
Strive and support welfare of physically challenged (handicapped) and mentally retarded.
Function as per directed by Panchayat Raj Act from time to time.

Write about the life and achievements of a local Politician.

1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

January 1, 2025

Students can Download 1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 with Answers, Karnataka 1st PUC Accountancy Model Questions with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Political Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Time: 3.15 minutes
Max. Marks: 100

SECTION – A

I. Answer any 8 questions each carries 1 mark. (1 × 8 = 08)

Question 1.
What is accounting?
Answer:
Accounting is an art of recording, classifying, measuring and summarizing in terms of money, of the business transaction.

Question 2.
What is cost concept?
Answer:
An assets acquired by a concern is recorded in the books of accounts at cost called cost concept.

Question 3.
Classify the English system of account.
Answer:
The three types of accounts under English system are:

Personal account
Real account
Nominal account
Revaluation or valuation account

Question 4.
What are contra entries?
Answer:
A single transaction entering both the side of two or three column cash book called contra entries.

Question 5.
What is Trial balance?
Answer:
Trial balance is the list of all debit and credit balances of accounts taken out from the ledger at a given period.

Question 6.
What is Bills Payable?
Answer:
A bill which is accepted by a party and for which he has to pay money called bills payable. Bills payable is a liability.

Question 7.
Mention any four items appeared in Trading account debit side.
Answer:
The items appeared in trading a/c debit side are:

Purchases
Wages
Freight charges
Factory expenses

Question 8.
What is Adjusted closing capital under Single Entry system?
Answer:
Under single entry system adjusted capital means, closing capital adjusted with drawings and additional capital called adjusted capital [Closing capital + Drawings – Additional Capital = Adjusted Capital].

Question 9.
State any two types of computers.
Answer:
The types of computer are:

Super Computer
Main Frame Computer
Mini Computer
Micro Computer.

Question 10.
What is computerised accounting system?
Answer:
It is an accounting information system that processes the financial transaction and events as per GAAP.

SECTION – B

II. Answer any 5 questions each carries 2 marks. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 11.
If accounting information is not clearly presented, which of the qualitative characteristics of accounting is violated?
Answer:
If accounting information is not clearly presented, then the qualitative characteristics like comparability, reliability & understandability are violated.

Question 12.
State the two systems of book-keeping.
Answer:
The two systems of book-keeping are:

Single entry system of book-keeping.
Double entry system of book-keeping.

Question 13.
Write the rule of capital a/c under American system.
Answer:
Capital a/c rule, under American system is:

“Debit decrease in capital.
Credit increase in capital”.

Question 14.
State any one reasons for the difference between cash book balance and pass book balance.
Answer:
The differences between cash and pass book casuse are:

Cheque deposited into bank but not realised
Cheque issued to parties but not presented
Any expenses directly debited by bank book and not in the cash book.
Any income directly received by bank and not recorded by business.

Question 15.
State any two examples for errors of omission.
Answer:
Examples for omission are:

Purchase goods from Murthy not recorded in purchase book. It is a omission of original entry.
Sold goods to Mary recorded in sales book but not posted to ledger. It is a omission of postings.

Question 16.
Why do you prepare final accounts?
Answer:
For knowing the exact financial position and financial result of the concern, final accounts to be prepared.

Question 17.
What is meant by Voucher Entry?
Answer:
Voucher entry is a proof of transaction which is also copy of transaction.

Question 18.
What is Capital reserve?
Answer:
Capital reserve is created out of Capital profits which is used for writing off capital losses or issue of bonus shares.

SECTION – C

III. Answer any 4 questions each carries 6 marks. (6 × 4 = 24)

Question 19.
What practical difficulties are encountered by a trader due to incompleteness of accounting records?
Answer:
The following are the difficulties that are encountered by a trader due to incompleteness of accounting records:
a. Accuracy of accounts:
Arithmetical accuracy of accounts cannot be ascertained, since proper records of accounts are not maintained. Consequently, Trial Balance cannot be prepared.

b. Encourages fraud:
As the arithmetical accuracy cannot be determined; so, this encourages fraud and provides sufficient scope for bluffing and carelessness.

c. Difficult to ascertain correct profit or loss:
Since all expenses and income are not recorded, true profit or loss cannot be correctly ascertained.

d. Difficult to analyse the true financial position:
As profit or loss cannot be ascertained easily, so the balance sheet cannot be easily prepared. Hence, the absence of balance sheet will not reflect the true financial position of the business.

e. Difficulty in comparison:
Due to the incomplete records and non-availability of previous years data, comparison is not possible. By the same token, comparisons with other firms are also not possible.

f. Unacceptable to tax authorities:
It does not reflect the true and acceptable presentation of expenses and revenues. Hence, these are not acceptable by the tax authorities.

g. Raising funds:
Since analysis of solvency, profitability and liquidity of business cannot be done, it is difficult to raise fund from outside.

Question 20.
Write a note accrual basis of accounting.
Answer:
The accrual method records income items when they are earned and records deductions when expenses are incurred. Accrual basis of accounting matches revenue to the time period in which they are earned and matches expenses to the time period in which they are incurred.

While it is more complex than cash basis accounting, it provides much more information about the business. The accrual basis allows matching revenue to the expenses incurred in earning them giving more meaningful financial report.

Question 21.
Write the Advantage / Merits of incomplete records system.
Answer:
The important uses/merits of incomplete records are:

It is a simple and easy method of book – keeping.
It is less costly, because only few books of accounts are maintained.
Only personal and cash accounts are main trained.
It is suitable for small business concern.
Accounting knowledge is not much required

Question 22.
Explain the disadvantages of Computerized Accounting.
Answer:
Disadvantages of computerized accounting are as follows:

Extremely high cost is involved in developing, introducing and using the system.
Special training for personal is required.
There is dependence on machines.
There is an inability to check unanticipated errors.
There are ill-effects on health.

Question 23.
Calculate gross income from the following information:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 1
Answer:
Gross income = Net sales – Cost of goods sold
= ₹ 9,800 – ₹ 6,700 = ₹ 3100

Working Notes :
a. Cost of goods sold = Opening stock + Net purchases + wages + freight – Closing stock
= ₹ 1,000 + ₹ 5,900 + ₹ 700 + ₹ 300 – ₹ 1,200
= ₹ 6,700
b. Net sales = Sales – Sales Returns
= ₹ 10,000 – ₹ 200
= ₹ 9,800
c. Net Purchases = Purchase – Purchase returns
= ₹ 6,000 – ₹ 100
= ₹ 5,900 (2+ 1 + 1 + 1)

Question 24.
Enter the following transactions in a simple cash book for the month of Jan 2014. 2014
Jan
1. Amar started business with ₹ 80,000
4. Purchased goods for cash ₹ 40,000
6. Received from Suresh ₹ 20,000
10. Opened an account with Canara Bank by paying in ₹ 5,000
15. Sold goods for cash ₹ 30,000
16. Paid advertising charges ₹ 2,000
20. Purchase office furniture for cash ₹ 35,000
24. Paid for electricity charges ₹ 1,000
28. Paid office rent ₹ 2,000
30. Paid salaries to staff ₹ 6,000
Answer:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 2

Question 25.
From the following balance prepare a Trial Balance:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 3
Answer:

SECTION – D

IV. Answer any 4 questions each carries 12 marks. (12 × 4 = 48)

Question 26.
Journalise the following transactions and open only the personal accounts in the ledger.
Govind started his business with the following :
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 6
Answer:

Question 27.
X sold goods on credit to A/c for ₹ 5,000 on 10.04.2014. On the same date, A accepted a bill drawn by X payable after 3 months. On the due date, the bill is dishonoured by A. Noting charges paid by X amounted to ₹ 200. Pass entries in the books of both the parties.
Answer:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 12

Question 28.
Answer:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 14

Question 29.
From the following information prepare a statements showing profits for the year ended 31.12.2014 and a revised statement of affairs as on the that date.
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 16
During the year drawings amounted to ₹ 1,600 and investment in 6% debentures of ₹ 2,000 on 1.7.2014, which is treated as a business asset. Tools should be written down by 20%.
Answer:

Notes :
1. The amount of debentures ₹ 2,000 is treated as a business asset and also as additional capital introduced during the year.
2. The difference between the opening balance and closing balance of furniture is assumed to be sale of furniture. (4 + 5 + 5)

Question 30.
Enter the following transactions in purchases book and post them into ledger accounts.
2014
April 1.
Purchased from Kala Enterprises
100 bags of wheat at ₹ 400 per bag
50 bags of rice at ₹ 500 per
bag 50 bags of sugar at ₹ 450 per bag

April 10.
Bought from M/S Chandra & Sons
200 bags of rice at ₹ 400 per bag
20 bags of sugar at ₹ 400 per bag
Less trade discount at 15%

April 28.
Purchased from Brook-Bond India
100 cases of tea at ₹ 150 per bag

April 30.
Purchased from Satya Traders
100 bags sugar at ₹ 350 per bag
So cases of coffee powder at ₹ 500 per case
Less trade discount at 5%
Answer:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 19

Question 31.
Prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement as at 31.01.2014 from the following:

Balance as per cash book (cr.) ₹ 80,000
Cheques sent to bank without entering in to cash book ₹ 3,000.
Cheques entered in cash book but not sent to Bank ₹ 10,000
Payment side of cash book is undercasts by ₹ 1,000
As per advice, book payment of ₹ 5,000 omitted in cash book
Bank charges entered twice in cash book ₹ 100.
Customer’s cheque of ₹ 4,000 was dishonoured but not entered in cash book.
Issued cheques of ₹ 3,000 later on dishonoured without an entry in cash book.
Collection of bill by bank of ₹ 20,000 only appeared in pass Book,
Cheques sent to bank for collection ₹ 50,000 but passbook collected ₹ 49,980, difference being bank commission.
Cheques received of ₹ 5,000 entered twice in cash book.

Answer:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 21

Question 32.
On 01.04.2009, a company purchased Machinery for ₹ 60,000. On 30.09.2011, a part of the Machinery which was purchased on 01.04.2009 costing ₹ 10,000 was sold for ₹ 7,000. On 01.04.2012 new Machinery was purchased for ₹ 20,000. Depreciation was charged at 10% p.a. on straight line method. Accounts are closed on 31st March every year. Show Machinery a/c and Depreciation A/c for the period ending 31.03.2013.
Answer:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 21

SECTION – E

V. Answer any 2 questions each carries 5 marks. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 33.
Prepare a statement of affairs using five imaginary figures.
Answer:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 24

Question 34.
Draft a specimen of an invoice.
Answer:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 24

Question 35.
Prepare a specimen of Bills of Exchange.
Answer:
1st PUC Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 with Answers image - 26

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