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Students can Download Karnataka SSLC Class 10 Tili Kannada Prabandha Lekhana, Tili Kannada Text Book Class 10 Solutions, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka SSLC Class 10 Tili Kannada Prabandha Lekhana

Students can Download Karnataka SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers, Karnataka SSLC Maths Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Syllabus SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 3 with Answers

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80

I. In the following questions, four choices are given for each question, choose and write the correct answer along with its alphabet: ( 1 × 8 = 8 )

Question 1.
In the following numbers, irrational number is
a) 0.232332333……
b) 0.23233
c) 0.232323
d) 0.2323
Answer:
a) 0.232332333……

Question 2.
10 sec²A – 10tan²A =
a) sec²A
b) 10
c) 1
d) 0
Answer:
b) 10
Solution:
10 sec²A – 10tan²A
10(sec²A – tan²A) = 10(1)= 10

Question 3.
The length of the tangent drawn to a circle of radius 3cm from 5cm away from the centre is
a) 4cm
b) 5cm
c) 3cm
d) 2cm 4
Answer:
a) 4cm
Solution:
d² = r² + t²
t² = d² – r²
5² – 3²
= 25 – 9
∴ t = 16 = 4cm

Question 4.
A solid piece of copper of dimension 24 × 49 × 33 cms is moulded and recast into a sphere. The radius of the
sphere formed is ________
a) 49 cm
b) 24 cm
c) 21 cm
d)33 cm
Answer:
e) 21 cm
l × b × h = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}\)

Question 5.
The degree of the polynomial in the graph given below is

a) 4
b) 3
c) 1
d) 2
Answer:
a) 4
Solution:
4 since it is intersecting the x – axis at 4 points.

Question 6.
The sum of the n terms of an AP is 2n2 + 5n and its common difference is 6, then its first term is
a) 0
b) 5
c) 2
d) 7
Answer:
d) 7
Solution:
S_n = 2n² + 5n
S₁ = 2(1)² + 5(1)
= 2 + 5 = 7

Question 7.
In ∆ PQR, PR = 12cm, QR = 6√3 cm, PQ = 6cm. The angle Q is
a) 45°
b) 90°
c) 30°
d) 120°
Answer:
b) 90°
Solution:
PR² = PQ² + QR²
12²= (6√3 )² + 6²
144 = 108 – 36
144=144
∴ ∠Q = 90°

Question 8.
A cube numbered 1 to 6 is thrown once, the probability of getting a number divisible by 3 is
a) 2/3
b) 0
c) 1/3
d) 1
Answer:
Event A = {3,6}
n(s) = 6, n(A) =2
P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{2}{6}=\frac{1}{3}\)

II. Answer the following Questions : (1 x 8 = 8)

Question 9.
Given g(x) = 2x + 1, q(x) = (x³ + 3x² – + 1), r(x) = 0, Find p(x)
Answer:
p(x) = g(x) q(x) + r(x) 1 650 1170
= (2x + 1) (x³ + 3x² – x + 1) + 0
p(x) = 2x (x³ + 3x² -x + 1) + 1(x³ + 3x² – x + 1)
= 2x⁴ + 6x³ – 2x²+ 2x + x³ + 3x² – x + 1
= 2x⁴ + 7x³ + x² + x + 1

Question 10.
If the sum of first n odd natural number is 1225, find the value of n.
Answer:
Sum of “n” odd natural number = n² = 1225
n = √1225
n = 35

Question 11.
In the fig. ∠AOD is divided into 2 parts which are in A.P. the smallest angle ∠AOB = 20° . Find the common difference between each angle.
Answer:
∠AOB +∠BOC + ∠COD = 180°
a + a + d + a + 2d= 180°
3a + 3d= 180°
3(20) + 3d = 180°
60 + 3d = 180°
3d = 180 – 60
d = 120/3 = 40°

Question 12.
In ∆ ABC, if DE || BC, then \(\frac{\mathbf{A B}}{\mathbf{A D}}=\frac{\mathbf{A C}}{\mathbf{A} \mathbf{E}}=\frac{\mathbf{B C}}{\mathbf{D E}}\) , state the theorem to justify this.
Answer:
In a triangle, if a line is parallel to one of the sides then the sides of given triangle are propotional to sides of the intercepted triangle.

Question 13.
Find the largest number which divides 650 and 1170.
Answer:
H.C.F of (650, 1170) = 130

Question 14.
If sin θ = 7/25, cos θ = 24/25 find the value of sin² θ + cos² θ
Answer:

Question 15.
Find the value of cos60° cos 30° sin60° sin 30°
Answer:
cos 60° cos30 – sin 60 sin 30

OR

This is in the form of
cos A cos B – sin A sin B = cos (A + B)
cos 60 cos 30 – sin 60 sin 30
= cos (60 + 30)
= cos (90)
– =0

Question 16.
The T.S.A of a solid hemisphere of radius 21 mm.
Answer:
T.S.A of hemisphere = 3 πr²
= 3 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 21 × 21 = 4158 mm²

III. Answer the following : ( 2 x 8 = 16 )

Question 17.
Prove that if x and y are odd positive integers, then x² + y² is even but not divisible by 4.
Answer:
Let x = 2m + 1 and y = 2n + 1 for some integers m and n.
x² + y² = (2m + 1)² + (2n + l)2
x² + y² = 4m² + 4m + 1 + 4n² + 1 + 4n
= 4m² + 4n² + 4m + 4n + 2.
x² + y² = 4(m² + n²) + 4 (m + n) + 2
x² + y² = 4 {(m² + n²) + (m + n)} +2
x² + y² = 4q + 2, where q = (m² + n² ) + (m+n)
⇒ x² + y² is even and leaves the remainder 2 when divided by 4.
⇒ x² + y² is even but not divisible by 4.

Question 18.
Solve : 100x + 200y = 700
200x + 100y = 800
Answer:
Consider 100x + 200y = 700 ….(1)
200x + 100y = 800 ….(2)
Add (1) & (2) 300x + 300y= 1500
Divide by 300, x + y = 5 …… (3)
Subtract (1) and (2)
-100x + 100y= -100 Divide by 100.
-x + y = -1 …(4)
Solve (3) and (4)

y = 2
Substitute the value of y in equation (3)
x + y = 5
x + 2 = 5
x = 5 – 2 = 3
x = 3

Question 19.
Find the roots of the quadratic
equation 3x² – 2√6x + 2 = 0 by formula method.
Answer:

Question 20.
Find the value of x in which the points (1, -1) (x, 1) and (4, 5) are collinear.
Answer:
A(1, -1) B(x, 1)C(4,5)
Area of the triangle = 0, when points are collinear.
0 = x₁(y₂ – y₃) + x₂(y₃ – y₁) + x₃ (y₁ – y₂)
0 = (1) (1 – 5) + x(5 + 1) + 4(-1 – 1)
0 = -4 + 6x – 8
6x – 12 = 0
x = 12/6
x = 2

Question 21.
ABC is a right angled triangle, having [B = 90°. If BD = DC, Show that AC² = 4AD² – 3AB²
Answer:

AC² = AB² + BC² (Pythagoras)
AC² = AB² + 2(BD)²
AC² = AB² + 4BD²
In right angled ∆ ABD,
AD² = AB² + BD²
BD² = AD² – AB²
Consider AC² = AB² + 4BD²
= AB² + 4(AD² – AB²)
= AB² + 4AD² – 4AB²
= – 3AB² + 4AD²
= 4 AD² – 3AB²
AC² = 4 AD² – 3AB²

OR

Prove that area of the equilateral triangle described on the side of a square is half the area of the equilateral triangle described on its diagonal.
Answer:

Data : ABCD is a square.
Equilateral triangles ∆ BCE and ∆ ACF have been described on side BC and diagonal AC respectively.
T.P.T. : Area of ( ∆ BCE) = 1/2 Area of ∆ ACF
Proof : Since ∆ BCE and ∆ ACF are equilateral.
∴ They are equiangular.
∆ BCE ~ ∆ ACF

Question 22.
A box contains 90 dices which are numbered from 1 to 90. If one dise is drawn at random from the box, find the probability that it bears
(i) two digit number
(ii) a perfect square number.
Answer:
The numbers in the dise form the sample space
S = {1,2, 3,4,…….. 90}
One dise can be drawn out of 90 in 90 ways. .
n(s) = 90

i) There are 90 -9 = 81, two digit numbers, out of which one dise can be drawn in 81 ways.
∴ n(A) = 81
P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{81}{90}=\frac{9}{10}\)

ii) The perfect square numbers are B= {1,4,9, 16,25,36,49,64,81}
∴ n(B) = 9
P(B) = \(\frac{n(B)}{n(S)}=\frac{9}{90}=\frac{1}{10}\)

Question 23.
Draw a pair of tangents to a circle of radius 5cm which are inclined to each
other at an angle of 60°.
Answer:

Question 24.
Prove that \(\frac{\tan \theta+\sin \theta}{\tan \theta-\sin \theta}=\frac{\sec \theta+1}{\sec \theta-1}\)
Answer:

OR

Prove that (cosecθ – cotθ)² = \(\frac{1-\cos \theta}{1+\cos \theta}\)
Answer:
Consider (cosecθ – cotθ)²

IV. Answer the following : ( 3 × 9 = 27 )

Question 25.
The sum of the ages of A and B is 85 years. 5 years ago, the age of A was twice that of B. Find the present ages.
Answer:
Let the present age of A be x years.
Let the present age of B be y years.
Sum of their ages = 85 x + y = 85 …….. (1)
Five years back, age of A was (x – 5) and that of B was (y – 5).
The age A is twice that of B.
∴ x – 5 = 2(y – 5) ……(2)
x – 5 = 2y – 10
x – 2y = -10 + 5
x – 2y = -5 ……(2)
Solve (1) and (2)

Substitute y in (1)
x + y=85
x + 30 = 85
x = 85 – 30 = 55
x = 55
∴ Present age of A is 55 years and B = 30 years.

OR

A piece of work can be done by 2 men and 7 boys in 4 days. The same piece of work can be done by 4 men and 4 boys in 3 days. How long it would take to do the same work by one man or one boy?
Answer:
Let x and y be the number of days in which one man can complete the work.
∴ In 1 day a man can do 1/x th work and
In 1 day a man can do 1/y th work.
2 men and 7 boys can complete the work in 4 days.
∴ They can complete in 1/4 th of the work in one day.
∴ \(\frac{2}{x}+\frac{7}{y}=\frac{1}{4}\) …… (1)
4 men and 4 boys together complete the work in 3days, and they can complete it in 1/3 rd of work.

4(2y + 7x) = xy
8y + 28x = xy …….(3)
3(4y + 4x) = xy
12y + 12x = xy ……..(4)
Solve (3) and (4)
(8y + 2x = xy) x 12
(l2y+ 12x = xy) x 18

4 y = 240
y = 240/4
y = 60

3(4y + 4x) xy
12y+12x = xy ………..(4)
4y = 240
y = 240/4 = 60
Substitute y in equation (3)
8y + 28x = xy
8(60) + 28x = xy
480 + 28x = x(60)
480 + 28x = 60x
480 = 60x – 28x
480 = 32x
x = \(\frac{480}{32}=\frac{120}{8}=\frac{30}{2}\) = 15
x = 15
Thus, one man can complete the work in 15 days and one boy can do the work in 60 days.

Question 26.
Find the zeroes of the polynomial p(y) = y3 – 5y2 – 2y + 24 if it is given that Sum of the two zeros is Answer:
Let α, β,γ be the zeros of the given polynomial.
p(y) = y³ – 5y² – 2y + 24
α + β = 7
Sum of the zeros

α + β + γ = 5
7 + r = 5
r = 5 – 7 = -2
r = -2
Sum of product of zeroes taken two at a

αβ + βr + rα = -2/1 = – 2
αβ + r(β + α) = -2
αβ + (7) (-2) = -2
αβ-14 = -2
αβ = -2+ 14
αβ = 12
(α – β )² = (α + β)²– 4αβ
= (7)² – 4(12)
(α – β)² = 49 – 48
α – β = ±1
Solve for α and β. When α – β = +1
α + β = 7
α – β = 1
2α =8
α = 8/2 = 4
α = 4
Substitute the value of a in α + β =7
4+p =7
β =7-4 = 3
β = 3
Solve for α and β when α – β = -1

α = 6/2 = 3
α = 3
α + β = 7
3 + β=7
β = 7 – 3
a + β = 7
β = 4
When α – β = 1,
the values are α = 4, β = 3, r = -2.
When α – β = -1,
The values are α = 3, β = 4, r = -2.

Question 27.
The diagonal of a rectangular field is 60 metres more than the shorter side, if the longer side is 30 metres more than the shorter side, find the sides of the field.
Answer:

Let the shorter D side be x mtr.
Longer side is 30m more than the shorter side. A Longer side = (x + 30)m.
Diagonal is 60m more than the shorter side.
Diagonal = (x + 60) m
AC² = AB² + BC² (Pythagoras)
(x + 60)² = (x + 30)² + x²
x²+(60)² + 2x (60) = x² + (30)² + 2(x)(30)+ x²
x² + 3600 + 120x = x² + 900 + 60x + x²
-x² + 60x + 2700 = 0
x² – 60x – 2700 = 0
x² – 90x + 30x – 2700 = 0
x(x – 90) + 30(x – 90) = 0
(x – 90) (x + 30) = 0
x – 90 = 0 or x + 30 = 0
x = 90 or x = – 30
∴ Shorter side = 90m = BC = x
Longer side = x + 30 = 90 + 30 = 120m
Diagonal = x + 60 = 90 + 60 = 150m

OR

Sum of the areas of two squares is 468m2. If the difference of their perimeters is 24m, find the sides of two squares.
Answer:
Let the sides of the two squares be x&y. Sum of the areas of two squares = 468
x² + y² = 468 ……(1)
Difference of their perimeters = 24m.
4x – 4y = 24 x – y = 6
x = 6 + y …….(2)
Substitute the value of x in (1)
x² + y² = 468
(6 + y)² + y² = 468
36 + y²+ 12y + y² = 468
2y² + 12y + 36 = 468
Divide by 2
y² +6y+ 18 = 234 y2 + 6y = 234 – 18
y² + 6y – 216 = 0
y²+18y – 12y -216 = 0
y(y + 18)-12(y + 18) = 0
(y + 18) (y – 12) = 0
y+18 = 0, y -12 = 0
y = -18,y = 12
∴ x = 6+y = 6 + 12 = 18m
The sides of two squares are 18m and 12m.

Question 28.
Show that the points x(2, -2) y(-2, 1) and z(5, 2) are the vertices of a right angled triangle XYZ and also calculate its area.
Answer:


⇒ XYZ is an isosceles right angled triangle.
Area of a right angled triangle = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x base x height
\(\frac{1}{2}\) × 5 × 5 = \(\frac{25}{2}\) = 12.5 cm

OR

Find the values of k for which the points A(k + 1, 2k) B(3k, 2k+3) and C(5k – 1, 5k) are collinear.
Answer:
A(k + 1, 2k) = (x₁, y₁)
B(3k, 2k + 3) = (x_2, y₂)
C(5k-1, 5k) = (x₃, y₃)
Area of the triangle = 0, for the points to be collinear.
Area =[x₁(y₂ – y₃) + x₂(y₃-y₁) + x₃(y₁-y₂)]
0 = \(\frac{1}{2}\){(k + 1) (2k+3 – 5k)+3k(5k- 2k) + (5k-1) [2k-2k-3]}
0= \(\frac{1}{2}\)]{(k+ 1) (-3k+ 3) + 3k (3k) + (5k- I)(-3)i
0 =\(\frac{1}{2}\){-3k²-3k + 3k + 3 + 9k2 – 15k+3}
0= \(\frac{1}{2}\){6k²– 15k + 6}
0 = 6k² – 15k + 6
Divide by 3
2k² – 5k + 2= 0
2k² – 4k – 1k + 2 = 0
2k(k – 2) -1(k – 2) = 0
(k – 2) (2k -1) = 0
k – 2 = 0, or 2k- 1=0
k = 2 or k = 1/2

Question 29.
Prove that the angle between the two tangents drawn from an external point to a circle is supplementary to the angle subtended by the line-segment joining the points of contact at the centre.
Answer:

Data: ‘O’ is the centre of the circle PA and PB are the two tangents drawn from an external point P. OA and OB are radii of the circle.
To prove that: ∠APB+ ∠AOB = 180°
Proof: In AAPO and ABPO
∠OAP = ∠OBP = 90°
(∵ Angle between the radius and tangent at the point of contact is 90°)
OP = OP (∵ Common side)
OA = OB (∵ Radii of the same circle) According to RHS postulate AAPO ABPO
∠OAP = ∠OBP = 90°
∠OAP + ∠OBP = 90° + 90° = 180°
⇒ Opposite angles of OAPB quadrilateral are supplementary
∴ OAPB is a cylic quadrilateral
⇒ ∠APB + ∠AOB = 180°

Question 30.
Find the area of the shaded region where a circular arc of Radius 6 cm has been drawn with the vertex ‘O’ of an equilateral Triangle OAB of side 12cm as centre.
Answer:
Area of the shaded Region = Area of circle area of sector OCDE + Area of equilateral
∆ le OAB

OR

From each corner of a square of side 4cm a quadrant of a circle of radius 1cm is cut and also a circle of diameter 2cm is cut as shown in Fig, Find the area of the remaining portion of the square.
Answer:


Area of shaded region = Area of square – (Area of circle + Area of 4 quadrants)
The following table gives production yield per hectare of wheat of 100 farms of a

Question 31.
The following table gives production yield per hectare of wheat of 100 farms of a
village.

Change the distribution to a more than type distribution and draw its ogive.
Answer:

Question 32.
If the median of the distribution given below is 28.5. Find the valucs of x and y.

Answer:
Meadian = 28.5, lies in the C.I , 20 – 30
The median class = 20 – 30
l = 20, f = 20, c.f = 5 + h, h = 10, n = 60

Question 33.
Construct a triangle ABC with side BC = 7cm, ∠B = 45°, ∠C = 105°. Then construct a triangle whose sides are 4/3 times the corresponding sides of ∆ ABC.
Answer:

V. Answer the following ( 4 × 4 = 16 )

Question 34.
Solve the pair of equations graphically.
x+y=3 and 3x-2y=4
Answer:
x + y = 3
y = 3- x

3x – 2y = 4
-2y = 4 – 3x .

Question 35.
If the sum of first 8 terms of an Arithmetic progression is 136 and that of first 15 terms is 465, then find the sum of first 25 terms.
Answer:
Given S₈ = 136, S₁₅ = 465, S₂₅ = ?
Use the formula S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2a + (n -l)d]
s₈ = \(\frac{8}{2}\)[2a + (s-l)d]
136 = 4 (2a + 7d)
∴ 2a + 7d = 136/4
2a + 7d= 34…….(1)
S₁₅ = \(\frac{15}{2}\)[2a + (15-l)d]
465 = \(\frac{15}{2}\)[2a + 14d]
465= \(\frac{15}{2}\) x 2(a + 7d)
∴ a + 7d = 465/15
a + 7d = 31 …….(2)
From (1) and (2)

Consider a + 7d = 31
3 + 7d = 31
7d = 31 – 3
d = 28/7
d = 4
∴S₂₅ = \(\frac{25}{2}\)[2a + (25-1)d]
S₂₅ = \(\frac{25}{2}\)[2a + (25-1)d]
S₂₅ = \(\frac{25}{2}\)[2a + (24)d]
S₂₅ = \(\frac{25}{2}\)[2(3) + 24(4)d]
S₂₅ = \(\frac{25}{2}\) × 102
S₂₅ = 1275
‘5 ‘ 9

OR

The sum of the 5th and 9th terms of an A.P is 40 and the sum of the 8th and 14th term is 64. Find the sum of the first 20 terms.
Answer:
Given T₅+ T₉ = 40 and T₈ + T₁₄ = 64
a + 4d + a + 8d=40
2a + 12d = 40….(1)
a + 7d + a + 13d = 64
2a + 20d = 64…. (2)

Consider 2a + 12d = 40
2a + 12(3) = 40
2a + 36 = 40
2a = 40 – 36
a = 4/2
a = 2
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2a + (n-1)d]
S₂₀ = \(\frac{20}{2}\)[2(2) + (20-1)3]
= 104(4 + 57)
= 10 × 61
= 610

Question 36.
Two poles of equal heights are standing opposite to each other on either side of the road, which is 80m wide. From a point between them on to the road, the angles of elevation of the top of the poles re 60 and 30’, respectively. Find the height of the poles and distances of the point from the poles.
Answer:

In ∆ ABE.
tan60 = \(\frac{\mathrm{AB}}{\mathrm{BE}}\)
√3 = x/BE
x = √3BE ….. (1)
tan30 = DC/EC
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{x}{E C}\)
EC = x√3
EC = BE × √3 .√3 [∵ x = √3.BE]
FC = 3BE
∴ EC=3BF
We know that
BE + EC = 80 rn
BE 3BE 80m
4BE = 80
BE = 80/4 = 20
⇒ EC = 3BE 3(20)= 60m
∴ x = BE.
x = 20√3
⇒ AB = CD = 20√3 m
∴ The distance from the point to the pole arc 20m towards left and 60m towards the right
poles
Height of the poles 20√3m

Question 37.
Prove areas of similar triangles.
Answer:
Areas of similar triangles are proportional
to the squares on the corresponding sides.

In ∆ABM and ∆DEN
∠AMB = ∠DNE = 90 [construction]
∠B =∠E (Data)
∠BAM = ∠EDN (Remainingang1e)
∆ABM ∼ ∆ DEN
∆ABM & ∆DEN are equiangular

VI. Answer the following : ( 5 × 1 = 5 )

Question 38.
A circus tent is made of canvas and is in the form of a right circular cylinder and a right circular cone above it. The diameter and height of the cylindrical part of the tent are 126m and 5m respectively. The total height of the tent is 21m. Find the total cost of the canvas used to make the tent when the cost per m2 of the canvas is ?15.
Answer:

Total canvas used=CS A of cylindrical part -1- CS A of conical part
=2πrh + πrl
= 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 63 × 5 + \(\frac{22}{7}\) x 63 x 65
= 1980 m² + 12870 m²
= 14850 m²
Total canvas used = 14850 m²
* Cost of canvas at the rate of ₹16 per m²
= 14850 × 15= ₹ 2,22.750.
Cost of canvas = ₹ 2,22,750

Students can Download Karnataka SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 2 with Answers, Karnataka SSLC Maths Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Syllabus SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80

I. In the following questions, four choices are given for each question, choose and write the correct answer along with its alphabet: ( 1 × 8 = 8 )

Question 1.
For some integer n every odd integer is of the form
a) 2n + 1
b) n + 1
c) 2n
d) n
Answer:
2n + 1

Question 2.
The value of sin215° + sin225° + sin265° + sin275° is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer:
2

Question 3.
If chord AB subtends an angle 50° at the centre of a circle then the angle between the tangents at A and B is
a) 40°
b) 100°
c) 130°
d) 120°
Answer:
130°

Question 4.
The formula used to find the volume of a sphere
a) \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}\)
b) \(\frac{2}{3} \pi r^{3}\)
c) \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{3}\)
d) πr³
Answer:
a) \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}\)

Question 5.
α + β are the zeroes of the polynomial x² – 6x + 4, then the value of \(\frac{(\alpha+\beta)^{2}-2 \alpha \beta}{\alpha \beta}\) is
a) 7
b) 8
c) -7
d) -8
Answer:
a) 7
Solution:

Question 6.
If 29th term of an A.P is twice its 19th term, then the 9th term is
a) -1
b) 0
c) 1
d) 2
Answer:
b) 0
Solution:
T₂₉ = 2T₁₉
a + 28d= 2(a + 18d)
a + 28d = 2a + 36d
0 = 2a + 36d-a-28d
0 = a + 8d
T₉ = 0

Question 7.
In ∆ ABC, AB = 6√3 cm, AC = 12 cm, BC = 6cm, The angle B is
a) 45°
b) 90°
c) 60°
d) 30°
Solution:
AC² = AB² + BC²
12²= (6√3 )² + 6²
144= 108 + 36 144=144
∴ ∠B = 90°

Question 8.
If the probability of an event is P(A) then the probability of its complimentary event will be
a) 1+P(A)
b) 1 – P(A)
c) P(A) – 1
d) 1 / P(A)
Solution:
We know that for any two complimentary events A and Ā
P(A) + P(Ā) = 1 → P(Ā) = 1 – P(A)

II. Answer the following questions : ( 1 × 8 = 8 )

Question 9.
If α and β are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 2 – 3x – x² then what is the value of α + β + αβ ?
Answer:
α + β = -b/a , αβ = c/a
= \(\frac{-(-3)}{-1}\) αβ = \(\frac{2}{-1}\) = – 2
= – 3
α + β + αβ = -3 -2 = -5

Question 10.
What are the roots of the quadratic equation x² + (√3 + 1)x + √3 = 0?
Answer:
² + (√3 + 1)x + √3 = 0 = 0
x² + x + √3x + √3 = 0
x(x + 1)+ √3 (x + 1) = 0
(x + 1)(x + √3) = 0
x + 1 = 0, x + √3 = 0
x = -1, x = -√3

Question 11.
If the nth terms of the two AP 9, 7, 5, ….. and 24, 21, 18, ……… are same. Find n.
Answer:
9, 7, 5, …….
a = 9, d = 7-9 = -2 T = a + (n – 1)d
T_n = 9 + (n – 1) (-2)
T_n = 9 + (-2n + 2) ‘
T_n = 9 – 2n + 2
T_n = 11 – 2n
24,21,18,
a = 24, d = 21 – 24 = -3
T_n = a + (n – 1) d T=24 + (n – 1)(-3)
T_n = 24 – 3n + 3
T_n = 27 – 3n
Given : nth term of both A. P. is same.
∴ 11 – 2n = 27 – 3n
-2n +3n = 27 -11
n = 16

Question 12.
State A – A criterian theorem.
Answer:
“If two triangles are equiangular, then the corresponding sides are proportional.”

Question 13.
Find the H.C.F of 455 and 42 with the help of Euclid’s division algorithm.
Answer:
Step (1): a = 455 b = 42
a = bq + r
455 = 42 × 1 + 35

Step (2): a = 42, b = 35
a = bq + r
42 = 35 × 1 + 7

Step (3): a = 35, b = 7
a = bq + r
35 = 7 × 5 + 0
∴ H.C.F. (455, 42) = 7

Question 14.
Find θ if sin (θ + 56) = cosθ, where θ and ( θ + 56) are less than 90°.
Answer:
sin (θ + 56) = cos θ
sin (θ + 56) = sin (90 – θ)
θ + 56 = 90 – θ
θ + θ = 90 – 56
2θ = 34
θ = 34/2
θ = 17

Question 15.
If x = a sin θ and y = b tan θ, then find the value of \(\frac{a^{2}}{x^{2}}-\frac{b^{2}}{y^{2}}\)
Answer:
Consider

Question 16.
Calculate the height of a right circular cone where C.S.A. and base radius are 12320 cm2 and 56 cms. respectively.
Answer:

C.S.A of a cone = π rl
12320 = \(\frac{22}{7}\) x 56 x 1
1 = \(\frac{12320 \times 7}{22 \times 56}\)
1 = 70 cm
But 1² = r² + h²
70² = 56² + h²
h2² = 70² – 56²
h² = (70 + 56) (70 – 56)
h² =(126) (14)

III. Answer the following ( 2 × 8 = 16 )

Question 17.
Show that any positive odd integer is of the form 6q + 1 or 6q + 3 or 6q + 5 where q is an integer.
Answer:
Let nbe any positive, integer using division algorithm,
a = bq + r
Taking a = n, b = 6
n = 6q + r
If any number is divided by 6, then the possible remainders are 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 or 5.
∴If n is odd, then r = 1, 3, 5
⇒ 6q + 1, 6q + 3, 6q + 5 are the positive odd integers.

Question 18.
Solve : 2x + 3y = 9
3x + 4y = 5
Answer:

Substitute y = 17 in 2x + 3y = 9
2x + 3(17) = 9
2x + 51 =9
2x = 9 – 51
x = \(\frac{-42}{2}\)
= -21

Question 19.
Solve : (x – 2)² + 1 = 2x – 3
Answer:
x² + 4 – 4x + 1 = 2x – 3
x² – 4x + 5 – 2x + 3 = 0
x² – 6x + 8 = 0 x2 – 4x – 2x + 8 = 0
x(x – 4) -2(x – 4) = 0
(x – 4) (x – 2) = 0
x – 4 = 0, x -2 = 0
x = 4 or x = 2

Question 20.
Show that the points (-2, 1) (2, -2) and (5, 2) are the vertices of a right angled triangle.
Answer:

∴ ∆ ABC is a right angled triangle at B.

Question 21.
The equilateral triangles are drawn on the sides of a right triangle. Show that the area of the triangle on the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the areas of the triangles on the other two sides.
Answer:


∴ Area of ∆ XAB + Area of ∆ YBC = Area of ∆ ZAC .

OR

In the given figure, PA, QB and RC are each perpendicular to AC. Prove \(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{z}=\frac{1}{y}\)
Answer:

Question 22.
Two dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability that the sum of the numbers on the faces is neither divisible by 4 nor by 5.
Answer:
S = {(1, 1) (1,2) (1, 3) (1,4) (1, 5) (1, 6) (2, 1) (2, 2) (2,3) (2,4) (2, 5) (2,6) (3.1) (3, 2) (3, 3) (3, 4) (3, 5) (3,6) (4, 1) (4, 2) (4, 3) (4, 4) (4, 5) (4,6) (5, 1) (5, 2) (5, 3) (5, 4) (5, 5) (5,6) (6.1) (6,2) (6, 3) (6,4) (6, 5) (6,6)}
n(S) = 36.
An event of getting sum of the numbers neither divisible by 4 nor by 5.
A={ 1,1) (1,2) (1,5) (1,6) (2,1) (2, 4)
(2, 5) (3, 3) (3, 4) (3, 6) (4, 2) (4,3) (4, 5) (5,1) (5, 2) (5, 4) (5, 6) (6,1) (6, 3) (6, 5)} n(A) = 20
n(A) = 20
P(A) = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{A})}{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{20}{36}\)

Question 23.
Draw a circle of radius 3 cm. Take a point P outside the circle without using the centre of the circle, draw to tangents to the circle from an external point P.
Answer:

Question 24.
Prove that (cosecθ-cotθ)² = \(\frac{1-\cos \theta}{1+\cos \theta}\)
Answer:
Consider LHS
(cosecθ-cotθ)² = cosec² θ +cot² θ – 2cosecθ.cotθ

OR

If sinθ + cos θ = √2 sin (90 -θ) determine cot θ
Answer:
sin θ + cos θ = √2 sin (90 – θ)
sin θ + cos θ = √2 cos θ
sin θ = ypi cos θ – cos θ
sin θ = cos θ (√2 -1)
sinθ /cosθ = √2 -1

IV. Answer the following : ( 3 × 9 = 27 )

Question 25.
Asha is 5 times as old as her daughter Usha, 5 years later Asha will be 3 times as old as her daughter Usha. Find the present ages of Asha and Usha.
Answer:
Let the age of Asha be x years
Let the age of Usha be y years
According to question x=5y
x – 5y = 0 …….(1)
Five years later,
(x + 5) = 3(y + 5)
x + 5 = 3y + 15
x – 3y = 15 – 5
x – 3y = 15 – 5
x – 3y = 10 (2)
Substitute x = 5y in equation (2)
5y – 3y = 10
2y = 10
y = 10/2
y = 5
∴ x = 5y
= 5 × 5
x = 25
∴ The present age of Asha is 25 years.
The present age of Usha is 5 years.

OR

The sum of 2 digits of a 2 digit number is 12 the number obtained by interchanging the digits exceeds by the given number by 18. Find the number.
Answer:
Let the two digits be x and y
The 2 digit number will be 10x + y
The sum of digits = x + y – 12 ……..(i)
The number obtained by interchanging the digits =10y + x
= 10x + y + 18
10y + x – 10x – y = 18
9y – 9x = 18
Divide by 9
y – x = 2
y = x + 2 ….(ii)
Consider equation (1)
x + y = 12
Substitute y = x + 2
x + x + 2 = 12 .
2x =12 – 2
2x= 10
x= 5
y = x + 2
y = 5 +2
y = 7
∴ The number is : 10x +y
= 10(5)+7 = 50+ 7
= 57

Question 26.
Find the other two zeroes of the polynomial y⁴ + y³ – 9y² – 3y + 18 if the
zeroes are √3 and -√3
Answer:
y = √3 and y = -√3
(y + √3) = o (y-V3) = o
(y + √3 )(y – √3 ) = o
y(y – √3 ) + √3 (y – √3 ) = 0
y² – √3y + √3 y – 3 = o
y² – 3 = 0

y² + y – 6 = 0
y² + 3y – 2y – 6 = 0
y(y + 3)-2(y + 3) = 0
(y + 3) = 0 & (y – 2) = 0
y=-3 & y = 2
The four zeros of polynomial are √3 , -√3 , -3 & 2

Question 27.
Solve for x.
\(\frac{1}{a+b+x}=\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{x}\) (Where a ≠ 0, b ≠ 0 x ≠ 0, x ≠ -a,-b
Answer:

(-a – b)ab = (a + b)x (a + b + x)
-a²b – ab² = (a + b) (ax + bx + x²)
-a²b – ab² = a²x + abx + ax² + abx + b²x + x²b
-a²b – ab²= a²x + 2abx + ax² + b²x + x²b
-ab(a+b) = ax(a+x) + xb(b+x)+2abx
=x[a(a+x)+b(b+x)+2ab]
=x[a² + ax+b² +bx + 2ab]
= x[(a+b)² + x(a+b)]
-ab(a + b) = x(a+b)[a+b+x]
-ab = x(a + b + x)
-ab = ax + bx + x²
x2 + x (a + b) + ab = 0
x² + ax + bx + ab = 0
x(x+a) + b(x + a) = 0
(x + a) (x +b) = 0
=>x + a = 0, x + b = 0
=> x = -a, x = -b

OR

The diagonal of a rectangular field is 60m more than the shorter side. If the larger side is 30m more than the shorter side, find the sides of the field.
Answer:
Let the shorter side of the rectangular field be x m.
Longer side is x + 30 and the diagonal is x+60

In ∆ ABC,
AC² = AB² + BC²
(x + 60)² = ( x + 30)²+ x²
x² + 3600 + 120x = x² + 900 + 60x + x²
x² + 900 + 60x – 3600 – 120x = 0
x² – 60x – 2700 = 0
x² – 90x + 30x – 2700 = 0
x(x – 90) + 30(x – 90) = 0
(x – 90) (x + 30) = 0
x – 90 = 0, x + 30 = 0
x = 90, x = – 30.
∴ The shorter side = x = 90m
The longer side = x + 30 = 90+30 = 120m.

Question 28.
If the points (7, -2) (5, 1) and (3, 5) are collinear. Find the value of k.
Answer:
Since the give points are collinear, the area of the triangle formed by them must be O i.e.
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [x₁(y₂-y₃) + x₂(y₃-y₂) + x₃(y₁-y₂)]
x₁ = 7, x₂ = 5, x₃ = 3
y₁ = – 2, y₂ = 1, y₃ = k
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [7(1 – k) + 5 (k + 2) + 3(-2-1)] = 0
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [7 – 7k + 5k + 10 – 9]-0
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [7 – 2k + 1] = 0
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [8 – 2k] = 0
8-2k = 0 or 2k=8
k = 8/2 = 4
k = 4

OR

Find the area of Rhombus if its vertices are (3, 0) (4, 5) (-1, 4) and (-2, -1) taken in order.
Answer:

Area of rhombus = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) d₁ × d₂
Let A = (3, 0) B = (4, 5)
C = (-1, 4) D = (-2, -1)
Diagonal

Question 29.
Prove the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Answer:

Data: A is the centre of the circle B is an external point.
BP and BQ are the tangents.
AP, AQ and AB are joined.
To prove that: a) BP = BQ
b) ∠PAB-∠QAB.
c) ∠PBA = ∠QBA
Proof: In ∆ APB and ∆ AQB
AP = AQ [Radii of same circle]
∠ APB – ∠AQB = 90°
AB = AB [common side]
∴  ∆ APB ≅ ∆ AQB [RHS]
a) PB = QB
b) ∠PAB = ∠QAB
c) ∠PBA = ∠QBA

Question 30.
Find the area of the shaded region in the figure, where ABCD is a square of side 14 cm
Answer:

Area of square ABCD
= 14 × 14=196 cm²

Hence, area of the shaded region
= Area of square – Area of four circles
= 196 – 154
= 42cm²

OR

Find the area of the shaded regions. Given PQRS a square of sides 14cm. Soln: S R
Answer:

Question 31.
The following table gives the weight of 120 articles :

Change the distribution to a “more than type” distribution and draw its ogive.
Answer:

Question 32.
The distribution below gives the weights of 30 students of a class. Find the median weight of the students.
Weight (in kg)

Answer:

Question 33.
Construct a right triangle whose hypotenuse and one side measures 10cm and 8cm respectively. Then construct another triangle whose sides are 4/5 times the corresponding sides of the triangle .
Answer:

V. Answer the following ( 4 × 4 = 16 )

Question 34.
Solve the pair of equations graphically.
x + y = 8 and x – y = -2
Answe:
x + y = 8
y = 8 – x

x – y = -2
x = -2 + y

x = 6/2 = 3
x + y = 8
3 + y = 8
y = 8 – 3
y = 5

Question 35.
Devide 20 into four parts which are in arithmetic progression and such that the product of first and fourth is to the product of second and third in the ratio 2:3.
Answer:
Let the four parts in A.P be :
a – 3d, a – d, a +d, a + 3d
Their sum = (a – 3d) + (a – d) + (a + d) + (a + 3d) = 20
⇒ 4a = 20 or a = 5
Also, it is given that

or 75 -27d² = 50 – 2d²
25d² = 25 .
⇒ d² = 1 or d = +√1 = ±1
When a = 5, d = 1, the four parts are 2, 4, 6,8
When a = 5, d = -1; the four parts are 8, 6, 4,2
Hence the four parts are (2, 4, 6, 8) or (8, . 6,4,2)

OR

The angles of a quadrilateral are in AP such that the greatest is double the least calculate all the angles of the quadrilateral.
Answer:
Let the quadrilateral be ABCD
The angles of the quadrilateral are in AP.
∴ The four angles are A, B, C and D which are a -3d, a – d, a + d, a + 3d respectively.
⇒ The least angle is a – 3d and the greatest angle is a + 3d.
It is given that
a + 3d = 2(a – 3d)
a + 3d = 2a – 6d
2a – a – 6d – 3d = 0
a – 9d ……(1)
9d = a
But ∠A + ∠B+∠C + ∠D = 360°
a – 3d + a – d + a + d + a +.3d = 360°
4a = 360 / 4 = 90°
But 9d = a
d = \(\frac{a}{9}=\frac{90}{9}\) = 10°
∴ ∠A=a- 3d = 90 – 3(10) = 90 -30 = 60°
∠B = a – d = 90 – 10 = 80°
∠C = a + d = 90 + 10= 100
∠D = a + 3d = 9 + 3(10) = 90 + 30 = 120

Question 36.
A person on the lighhouse of height 100m above the sea level observes that the angle of depression of a ship sailing towards the light house changes from 30° to 45°. Calculate the distance travelled by the ship during the period of observation. (Take √3 ≈ 1.73)

Answer:
P is the top of the light house PQ. We are given that its height PQ = 100m PX is horizontal line through P
∠APX = 30° and ∠BPX =45°
Then, ∠PAQ =30° and ∠PBQ = 45°
Suppose, AB = x metre and BQ = y metre
Karnataka SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 2 with Answers – 40
⇒ x + y =100√3 = 100√3 = 100× 1.732
⇒ x +y = 173.2
⇒ x + 100 = 173.2
⇒ x = 73.2
Therefore, the distance travelled = 73.2m

Question 37.
Prove that “the ratio of areas of two similar triangles is equal to the square of the ratio of their altitudes.
Answer:

Data : ∆ABC ∼ ∆DEF
∠A = ∠D
∠B = ∠E
∠C = ∠F
\(\frac{A B}{D E}=\frac{A C}{D F}=\frac{B C}{E F}\)
T.P.T : \(\frac{\text { Area of } \Delta \mathrm{ABC}}{\text { Area of } \Delta \mathrm{DEF}}=\frac{\mathrm{AB}^{2}}{\mathrm{DE}^{2}}=\frac{\mathrm{AC}^{2}}{\mathrm{DF}^{2}}=\frac{\mathrm{BC}^{2}}{\mathrm{EF}^{2}}\)
Construction:Draw AM ⊥ BC and AN ⊥ EFim

VI. Answer the fallowing : ( 5 × 1 = 5 )

Question 38.
The radii of the circular ends of the frustrum of height – 6cm are 14 cm and 6cm respectively. Find the lateral surface area and total surface area of frustrum.
Answer:
R = 14cm, r = 6cm and h =6cm
Now, let 1 be the slant height of the frustrum;

Now, lateral surface area of the frustrum
= π(R + r)l
= π (14 + 6) 10
= 628.57 cm²
And total surface area of the frustrum = π[(R+r)l + R²+ r²]
= π [(14 + 6)10 + (14)² + (6)²]
= π(200 + 196 + 36)
= π(432)
= 1357.71 cm².

Students can Download Karnataka SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 4 with Answers, Karnataka SSLC Social Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Syllabus SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 4 with Answers

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet in your answer booklet. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
The reason which the French could not succeed in India was.
A. They sided with the weak Indian sides such as Chandasahib and Muzaffar Jung.
B. Dupleix was called back to a crucial time.
C. They conspired against Indian powers
D. Their trading Company was heavily dependent on the French Government.
Answer:
D. Their trading Company was heavily dependent on the French Government.

Question 2.
Congress walked out of the government in 1939.
A. Muslim League was kept out of government.
B. Muslim League did not participate in Quit Indian movement.
C. Opposing the unilateral decision of the Viceroy to participate in World War II
D. The Muslim League proposed division of India.
Answer:
C. Opposing the unilateral decision of the Viceroy to participate in World War II

Question 3.
Security council is like the cabinet of the UNO because it.
A. Has five permanent members.
B. Has ten temporary members.
C. Has special voting power.
D. It can take major decisions on global issues.
Answer:
D. It can take major decisions on global issues.

Question 4.
A person who recieves less than _____ calories of food is considered as malnourished.
A. 1600
B. 1633
C. 1632
D. 1635
Answer:
C. 1632

Question 5.
Social Inequality is the result of
A. Caste
B. Gender
C. Profession
D. Unequel social opportunity
Answer:
D. Unequel social opportunity

Question 6.
During the rainy season the eastern coast of India suffers heavy damage due to.
A. Heavy Rainfall
B. Huge Tidal waves
C. Tropical cyclones
D. Hurricances
Answer:
C. Tropical cyclones

Question 7.
Unemployment in developing countries has increased due to
A. Automation
B. Computerization
C. Globalisation
D. Competition
Answer:
C. Globalisation

Question 8.
The process of creating some thing new is
A. Creativity
B. Skill development
C. Innovation
D. Dynamism
Answer:
C. Innovation

II. Answer the following questions in a sentence each: (8 × 1= 8)

Question 9.
What was the main reason for implementation of the ‘Regulating Act’ by the British
Answer:
Curb the corruption in East India Company.

Question 10.
How did Puttabasappa of Amarasuliya Rebellion become popular?
Answer:
He killed an Amaldhar who was known for his brutality.

Question 11.
Mention one major aim of Indian foreign policy.
Answer:
National Security.

Question 12.
What do ‘Income sources’ and ‘Educational and professional opportunities’ lead to?
Answer:
Social Inequalities.

Question 13.
The Northern plains has high density of population. Why?
Answer:
Fertile soil for agriculture, efficient transport and communication, Industries for employment, water facility etc.

Question 14.
Which industry has become a powerful tool of socio-economic change?
Answer:
Knowledge based industry.

Question 15.
What does the word ‘underdevelopment’ denote?
Answer:

• Backwardness
• Low level of living of people
• Stagnant situation
• Low percapita income
• Low productivity levels
• High population growth

Question 16.
Technology and Communication has aided globalisation. How?
Answer:

• Communication techonology and Interent Communication have made large business units as global business units.
• Business are not confined to their place of establishment but spread world – wide.

III. Answer the following questions in three to four sentences each : (8 × 2 = 16)

Question 17.
How did trade take place between India and Europe during middle ages?
Answer:

• There was great demand for Indian spices. like Pepper, Cardamom, Ginger, and many other spices in Europe.
• Arab merchants carried Asian Merchandise into Constantinople of Eastern Roman Empire (Byzantium)
• Italian merchants would buy these goods and then sell in European countries.

Question 18.
What was the result of ‘Treaty of Versallies’
Answer:

• Empires of Austro – Hungary and Ottoman empires lost their existence.
• New and small countries emerged in Europe.
• ‘League of Nations’ was established in 1919.
• Spirit of Nationalism brewed in the defeated nations.
• Germany was economically devastated
• Hitler rose to power.
• Arms manufacturers profited.

Question 19.
How does corporate strategies affect a country?
Answer:

• Corporate strategies influence the decisions of the governments.
• Corporate strategies are also used to alleviate social problems such as poverty, malnutrition, health, skill, training etc.
• Corporate social responsibility (CSR) can channelize corporate strategies in favour of society.

OR

What were the major problems that emerged after II World War?
Answer:

• Human Rights
• Apartheid
• Arms Race
• Terrorism
• Economic ineuality

Question 20.
Why are women’s Movement important?
Answer:

• They oppose patriarchal values exploiting women.
• They oppose Gender Inequality.
• They oppose exploitation of woman.
• They demand equal rights for work and wages.

OR

Why is child labour a social Problem?
Answer:

• Child Labour affects physical and psychological growth of children negatively.
• Child labourers remain uneducated and miss basic rights.
• Child Labour leads to seual exploitation child marriage, human trafficing.

Question 21.
Which soils are suitable for plantation crops? Why?
Answer:

• Mountain soils.
• Mountain soils are formed due to decomposition of organic matter,
• They are rich in humus.
• Hence mountain soil is fertile.

Question 22.
Railways are important mode of land transport. Why?
Answer:

• Railways can carry heavy goods over the long distance.
• Railways can carry large number of passengers over a long distance.
• They are cheap and affordable means of transport.
• Play vital role in development of agriculture, Industry and economy.
• Help expand trade and tourism.

Question 23.
What are measures that are essential for Rural Development?
Answer:

• Development of Human Resources.
• Land reforms
• Development of productive resources of each village.
• Development of Infrastructure (roads, hospitals, electrification etc)

Question 24.
“Globalization is the worldwide economic movement”. Substantiate your answer.
Answer:

• Globalization is the increasing cross border movement of goods and services.
• International flow of capital, technology and information
• Formation of one worldwide market by obtaining raw materials and other resources from cheap market.
• Production of goods in any region of the world at cheaper cost.

IV. Answer the following questions in six sentences each : (9 × 3 = 27)

Question 25.
Mention the efforts of the British to facilitate the expansion of Modern education in India.
Answer:

• Warren Hastings started the “Calcutta Madarasa” in 1781.
• Jonathan Duncan, a British Citizen started ‘Sanskrit College’ in Banaras in 1792.
• Lord William Benedict appointed Sir Macaulay as the Chairperson of the committee on education in 1828.
• Macaulay’s report on Education submitted by him in 1835 became the base of Modern Education in India.
• The English Medium of Instruction in India Learning System was started after 1830.
• Governor General Lord Dalhousie established Universities in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.

OR

Why did congress pass a resolution to hold Non – Co-operation Movement.
Answer:

• To educate Indians about the British for their brutal killing in Jallianwala Bagh.
• To prevent Jallianwala Bagh-like incidents in future.
• To compel British to withdraw Rowlatt Act.
• To compel British to reform the political system which would lead to swarajya.

Question 26.
Discuss the efforts of Sayyid Ahmen Khan in removing the evils of Muslim community.
Answer:

• He started Mohammadan Liberty Society in 1863.
• He started debates and discussions on issues related to religion, society and politics.
• He advocated that religion should be interpreted according to changing times.
• He fought against traditions, superstitions, ignorance and irrationalities in Muslim religion.
• He did not support purdah system and called for educating muslim girls.
• He started Mohammadan Anglo-oriental college to spread western scientific and cultural ideas.
• He preached tolerance.

Question 27.
How did the Political and Social religious factors led to the First war of India Independence of 1857.
Answer:
The issues that outraged the religions feeling of Indian Soldiers:
1. Indians believed that it was against their religious belief to cross the oceans to another country. Hence the pressure put on Indian soldiers for overseas work triggerd anger among the Indian soldiers due to their religious beliefs.

2. The rumour that the bullets of the New Royal Enfield guns were greased with cow or pig fat. Hindu soldiers believed that cows are sacred and pigs were prohibited for Muslims.

3. When the military soldiers at Barackpur were ordered to load the bullets to the gun by chewing a part of the bullet, they refused to do it and revolted against the British Officers.

The major cause of the ‘First Indian ‘Freedom Struggle’ are
Political Causes: Under the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ policy, the British annexed many kingdoms into their empire

Economic cause:
a) Industrial revolution in west led to decline in Indian industries and rendered many people unemployed.
b) High customs duty on Indian Goods exported to England
c) Oppressive land taxes impoverished the farmers

Administrative Causes: Oppressive civil and criminal laws which discriminated against Indians.

Military Causes:
a) Indian soldiers in the British army were discriminated in status, salary and promotions.
b) The rumour that the bullets of the Royal Enfield guns were greased with the fat of pig or cow enraged the Hindus, who believed that cows are sacred and the Muslims who were prohibited the consumption of pigs, was the immediate cause for the uprising.

Question 28.
What are the effects of terrorism? What are the measures taken to curb terrorism?
Answer:

• Terrorism puts pressure on a government.
• Terrorism creates a lot of loss for individuals as well as communities.
• Terrorism creates psychological pain and influences the cultural aspects negatively
• Terrorism creates panic and violence and fear in people.
• The Government of India now created special elite force to tackle terrorism.

Question 29.
What are the features of Social Stratification?
Answer:
1. Social Stratification is social in nature: This stratification is based on the social recognition and importance but not on any physical traits.

2. Social Stratification is Universal: In any human society social stratification exists based on division of labour, profession, income and other social traits.

3. Social Stratification is ancient: Social stratification exists since the birth of society.

• Social stratification exists in different ways in different regions.
• In ancient Rome, differences existed between – plebians & patricians. In India, social stratification is based on varna system.

Question 30.
Mention the causes of earthquakes.
Answer:
Earthquake occur due to several causes such as plate movements, volcanic eruption, faulting and folding, landslides, collapse of underground cave roofs, hydrostatic pressure of man made water bodies like reservoirs etc., In India most of the earthquakes that have occurred earlier were due to plat movement.

OR

What is the Impact of population growth in India?
Answer:

• Unemployment.
• Shortage of food and malnutrition.
• Burden on civic and social amenities.
• Low per capita income
• Slow economic development.
• Political and social unrest.
• Low Standard of Living.
• Poverty.
• Environmental pollution.
• Strain on resources.

Question 31.
Agriculture is the back bone of India. Explain.
Answer:

• India is predominantly an agricultural country.
• 65% of people depend on agriculture.
• Main source of livelihood
• Main source of food, fodder and raw material for animals and industries.
• Supports tertiary sectors – trade, transport, booking, insurance.
• Influences political and social situtation of India.
• Supports Industries.

Question 32.
Explain the aspects of nOn-tax revenue of the central government.
Answer:

• The ‘Non-Tax Revenue’ of the Government are –
• Profit earned by the Reserve Bank of India
• Profit generated by the Indian Railways
• Revenue generated by the Departments of Post and Telecommunications
• Revenue generated by the public sector industries
• Revenue generated by the coins and mints
• Various types of fees and penalties etc.

OR

Explain the meaning of Public Finance and its importance
Answer:
Public finance deals with how a Government raises revenues to meet its
expenditure. As Dalton says, public finance is “concerned with the income and expenditure of public authorities and with the adjustment of one to the other.” Public finance studies the way in which the government manages its income, expenditure and loans.

Importance of Public Finance: The government’s activities of mobilizing revenue, incurring expenditure and raising loans are part of its fiscal policy. The objectives of fiscal policy are to achieve economic growth, maintain economic (price) stability, and achieve a fair distribution of income.

The government usually spends the revenue collected through taxes or the money raised through borrowings for development activities. This increases the growth rate of the economy and benefits everyone. Similarly, by spending more during recession and controlling expenditure during inflation, the government tries to regulate the economic activities.

Since all these are part of the annual budget prepared by the government, the study of public finance also helps in analysis and evaluation of budgets.

Question 33.
Explain the relationship between the banker and its customers.
Answer:
Relationship between bankers and customers :
The relation between a banker and customers falls under two broad categories, namely-
1. General relationship
2. Special relationship

1. General relationship

• Primary Relationship (Debtor and creditor relationship).
• Subsidiary Relationship (Trustee and beneficiary relationship.)
• Agent and Principal Relationship

2. Special relationship

• Obligation to honour cheques.
• Obligation to maintain secrecy of accounts.

OR

Explain the factors which include in Globalization.
Answer:
Globalization refers to the worldwide phenomenon of technical, economic, political and cultural exchanges, brought about by modern communication , transportation and legal infra structure as well as the political choice to consciously open cross-border links in the international trade and finance.

• Globalization encourages international capital and trade overcoming the political barriers among the countries.
• Globalization creates free trade zone by removing the import and export duties.
• Through container service in shipping, globalization reduces the transportation expenses.
• Globalization helps to reduce the restriction on capital investment or fully removes the barriers on capital flow.
• Globalization creates subsidies to the worldwide trade organization
  Globalization creates harmonization of intellect property laws across the majority of states which have more restrictions.
  Ex : Some patent goods of China are found in some prominent business houses of America.)

V. Answer the following questions in Six sentences each : (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 34.
Explain the role of farmers revolts in the freedom movement of India.
Answer:
The protests organized by the farmers and the workers are equally important in the history of National Freedom Struggle. Some of these associations were influenced by the Congress, and some were influenced by the Marxist ideologies. During the British administration many farmers rebelled against the British planters and Zamindars.

They opposed the Indigo cropping in Champaranya district. They protested against land tax. Gandhi convinced the British officers through his Sathyagraha to withdraw tax.

The Indian National Congress tried to organize the farmers as a part of National Freedom Struggle. Gandhiji’s influence was visible in activities in Champaranya, Khedha and other places where the farmers organized themselves and protested. Farmers of Tebhaga, Malabar and other places revolted against the British and Zamindars under the influence of the Congress.

The issues the farmers found themselves intermingled with the problems focused on Non movements like Non-Cooperation movement. Tax refusal and Quit India movements. Many of the protests were organized under the banner of Kisan Sabha which was influenced by leftist ideologies.

These protests were often in favour of the congress and many times stood opposed to congress. In Telangana, farmers protested against the Zamindars and Nizam’s Razacks. The farmers of Bengal rose against the Zamindars. In Maharastra, farmers protested against low wages for them.

Question 35.
The Indian Government Act of 1858 brought radical changes in the British administration of India. Explain.
Answer:

• The Queen of Britain passed a declaration in 1858. It had the following aspects :
• The agreements entered by the company with the local Kings were accepted.
• Non – pursuance of regional expansion.
• Providing a stable government for Indians
• Equality before the law
• Non-interference of the government in religious issues of Indians and practicing religious tolerance.

OR

How did USA come out of its Great Economic Depression?
Answer:
Emergence of USA as a strong country: The Great Economic Depression that affected USA in 1927 brought in many changes in the politics of USA. USA had helped the Triple Entente with money and soldiers. In 1929, USA. experienced stagnation in economic development. As a result, output dropped in automobile and agriculture. There was also drop in the output of consumer durables manufacturing, mining, ship building, and many other industries. This economic crisis led to changes in the politics.

During the Second World War, Japan attacked Pearl harbor, the military base of USA. This made USA to enter the war in favour the allied forces. The President Roosvelt made people to be ready for war. He encouraged women to work in public spear. USA won the war. It also helped the establishment of UNO during the war and later provided its support to it. USA has emerged as a powerful country after 1945. With the end of Cold War, USA has become the only Super Power of the world.

Question 36.
Child Marriage is a blot on Indian society. Explain.
Answer:
The holistic development of children is stunted by child marriage and they lose the power of questioning. As a result, violations like sexual assaults on children become more and more increased. Many rights of children like education, childhood, entertainment, interaction with friends continue to be violated.

Children fall into the trap of malnutrition, anemia, diseases, abortions, infanticide and maternal mortality increases. The chance of girl becoming a widow at a young age is also more and becomes a victim of violence easily.

Question 37.
How can coastal erosion be prevented?
Answer:

• Constructing walls, Groins and Breaks waters to protect the coastal areas from erosion.
• Restricting sand mining in coastal areas.
• Planting of trees to stabilize the beaches and coastal dunes.
• Banning construction activities within 500 mts of sea coasts.

VI. 38. Draw outline map of India and mark the given by naming them (1 + 4 = 5)
A] Western Ghats
B] Kholapur CJ Srinagar
D] Vishakapatnam
Answer:

Students can Download Karnataka SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 5 with Answers, Karnataka SSLC Social Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Syllabus SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 5 with Answers

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet in your answer booklet. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Who among the following was connected with ‘Blue water policy’
A. De Almedia
B. Albuqueraque
C. Dupleix
D. Robert Clive
Answer:
A. De Almedia

Question 2.
The ‘Poona Pact’ awarded
A. Seperate constituencies for the untouchables.
B. Implementation of ‘Communal Award’
C. Reservation for Untouchables amons seneral constituencies.
D. Right to vote for untouchables.
Answer:
C. Reservation for Untouchables amons seneral constituencies.

Question 3.
India is trying to achieve member status in which organ of the UNO
A. International Labour Organisation
B. United Nations Human Rights council
C. Trusteeship Council
D. Security Council
Answer:
D. Security Council

Question 4.
Empowerment of rural women is done through
A. Panchayat Raj
B. Grama Sabha
C. Poverty Alleviation schemes
D. Self-help groups
Answer:
D. Self-help groups

Question 5.
Female foeticide is a form of
A. Sexual offence
B. Gender discrimination
C. Birth control
D. Social Problem
Answer:
B. Gender discrimination

Question 6.
The important factor for the location of an industry is
A. Availability of raw Material
B. Availability of power resource
C. Availability of water resource
D. All of the above
Answer:
D. All of the above

Question 7.
The availability of all goods and services which are used by individuals of a country is
A. Economic Development
B. Economic Welfare
C. Economic Growth
D. Economic Equality
Answer:
B. Economic Welfare

Question 8.
Banking transactions in India are controlled by
A. State Bank of India
B. Reserve Bank of India
C. Canara Bank
D. Vijaya Bank
Answer:
B. Reserve Bank of India

II. Answer the following questions in a sentence each: (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 9.
What did Gandhi believe would drive out the British from India?
Answer:
Gandhi believed that the British would withdraw from India if the Hindu and Muslims fight united.

Question 10.
Who is regarded as the father of Modern Education in India?
Answer:
Warren Hastings.

Question 11.
Why is Communalism a threat to India?
Answer:
Communalism creates social differences, mutual suspicion and fear in the society and integrity and unity of a nation.

Question 12.
Though women and men engage in similar work, women are paid less. Such discrimination is known as?
Answer:
Gender discrimination or Gender inequality.

Question 13.
The distribution of population of India is uneven give reasons?
Answer:
The distribution of population in India is uneven because of varied geographical and cultural factors.

Question 14.
Mention one factor affecting the localization of Industries?
Answer:
Supply of Raw Material.

Question 15.
The total value of all goods and services produced in a country during one year is known as?
Answer:
National Income.

Question 16.
What is meant by ‘Plastic Money’?
Answer:
Credit and debit cards issued by banks.

III. Answer the following questions in three to four sentences each : (8 × 2 = 16)

Question 17.
What was the cause and results of Carnatic war-III?
Answer:
The Third Carnatic War was fought between the English and the French between 1756 and 1763.
Causes :

• Comte De Lally of the French attempted to besiege Wandiwash in 1760.
• The English army under Sir Eyrecoote defeated and imprisoned Bussi.
• Comte De Lally escaped and hid in Pondicherry.
• Eyrecoote attacked Pondicherry and Lally had to surrender unconditionally in 1761.

Results :

• French had to lose all their bases in India, due to Carnatic wars.
• Pondicherry was returned to the French, according to the ‘Treaty of Paris’ in 1763.
• French lost importance in India.
• The English reigned supreme in Southen India, after defeating all their rivals.

Question 18.
What were the administrative and military reasons that led to the mutiny of 1857.
Answer:
Administrative Reasons :

• Implementing civil and criminal laws was partial
• English became the language of the court.
• English judges were partial to Europeans.
• Indians did not like new laws.

Military Reasons

• Pathetic situation of Indian soldiers in British army.
• Indian soldiers were payed less then British soldiers.
• No promotion prospects.
• Indian soldiers were pressurised to work over-seas.
• It hurt the religious sentiments of Indian soldiers.

Question 19.
What are the basic aspects of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:

• Panchasheela Principles
• Non – Aligned Movement.
• Anti – Imperialism
• Anti- Apartheid policy

OR

What are the achievement of UNO

• Peace keeping functions Suez Canal, Iran, Indonesia, Kashmir, Palastine, Korea.
• Economic and Financial: GATT, Establishment of World Bank, IMF
• Social Achivements: World Health Organisations, UNESCO, UNICEF, World Refugee Council.

Question 20.
What are the types of Gender Discrimination according to Amratya Sen.
Answer:

• Inequality in birthrate.
• Inequality in ownership
• Inequality in Infrastructure
• Inequality in family
• Inequality in Opportunities

OR

Child Marriage is a bane of Indian Society. Why?
Answer:

• Patriarchal values
• Gender discrimination
• Lack of girl education.
• Poor implementation of laws

Question 21.
How does Floriculture help economic development of India?
Answer:

• Floriculture plays a significant role in Indian Agriculture.
• It has a great potential of generating income.
• It provides employment opportunities for farmers and women
• Adds to export of India.

Question 22.
Why is there a need for non – conventional energy resources.
Answer:

• They are renewable, pollution free, eco-friendly.
• Found in abundance.
• Can be conveniently supplied to urban and rural areas.
• Capable of meeting power requirements in India.
• Will augment energy crisis.

Question 23.
India’s Human Development Index is very low (0.554) Explain.
OR
India rank’s 136 out of 186 countries in HDI (Human Development Index) explain.
Answer:
In the year 2012 HDI was 0.554. India ranked 136 among 166 countries.

• Low life expectancy (65.8 years)
• Low per Capita Income ($3203)
• Low average years of schooting (4.4 years)

Question 24.
Explain the importance of an Entrepreneur.
Answer:

• Entrepreneurs activate and stimulate economics of a country.
• Entrepreneurs promote capital formation by mobilising savings of public,
• Entrepreneurs create and innovate new products.
• They strive had to satisfy needs of the people.

IV. Answer the following questions in six sentences each : (9 × 3 = 27)

Question 25.
What were the causes and result of First – Anglo Mysore war.
Answer:
Causes :

• The British, Marathas and Nizam did not tolerate Hyder Ali’s rise to power.
• Hyder Ali cunningly broke the tri-party alliance of British, Nizam and Marathas.
• Hyder Ali attacked Arcot in 1767 along with the Nizam’s army.

Results :

• Hyder Ali captured Madras in 1769.
• The British signed ‘Treaty of Madras’ (1769)
• According to the Treaty, British had to help Hyder Ali when attacked by neighbouring kings.

OR

What are the important features of the India Government Act of – 1858.
Answer:

• The license of East India Company was canceled and India was brought under the direct administration of the Queen.
• The post of Governor General was changed into ‘Viceroy’. Lord Canning became the first Viceroy of India.
• A new post called ‘Secretary of State for India’ was created in the British government. The secretary was part of British cabinet and was responsible for the administration of India.
• A Council of India was created in order to assist the secretary in the administration. The council had fifteen members.

Question 26.
The Revolt of 1857 was an extremely important event in India History. Substantiate.
Answer:

• It was an expression of the accumulated grievances against the company administration.
• It was an ultimate expression Indian’s dislike of British Rule.
• The administration passed into the hands of the crown by the Government of India Act 1858.
• Doctrine of Lapse was withdrawn.
• End of Mughal and Peshwa rule.

Question 27.
The Prarthana Samaj was doing religious as well as social reforms Justify.
Answer:

• Dr. Athma Ram Panduranga started Prarthana Samaj in 1867.
• It aimed to find solutions to problems faced by woman and lower caste people.
• It argued that reinterpretation of Hinduism was needed.
• It started programmes to educate women.
• It rehabilitated poor people.
• It fought against child marriage and discrimination of widows.
• It encouraged widow remarriage.

Question 28.
Discuss the relevance fo India’s Non- aligned policy.
Answer:

• India followed non – aligned policy with both USA and USSR.
• It commanded the faith of both the power block.
• It secured financial assistance from USA.
• It secured military aid from USSR.
• It dealt every international event independently.
• India’s non-aligned policy guided the wars of 1965 and 1971 with Pakistan.

Question 29.
What are the reasons and effects of child trafficking.
Answer:
Reasons :

• Child labour, Child marriage, School dropout, poverty, negligent family, bonded labour.
• Migrations exposure to social media, social inequalities, gender discrimination.
• Lack of skills, Poverty, illiteracy etc.

Effects :

• Physical, Psychological and Social exploitation.
• Children infected with STD’s / HIV/AIDS.
• Pregnancy, abortion deaths, murders, drug addictions.

Question 30.
What are the factors of the location of Iron and steel industries in India? Factors of the location of Iron and Steel
industries in India.
Answer:

• Supply of iron ore.
• Supply of coking coal and hydel power.
• Railway and port facilities for internal and external, trade.
• Plenty of water supply.
• Cheap Labour.
• Capital and local market.

OR

What are the causes of population growth in India?
Answer:
Causes of Population Growth :

• High birth rate due to early marriage, religious attitudes, polygamy, poverty, illiteracy, tropical climate.
• Low death rate due to improved medical facilities, control of epidemics lower infant mortality, education.

Question 31.
Multipurpose river valley projects have multiple benefits. Justify.
Answer:

• They provide water for irrigation.
• They control floods.
• Generate hydro-electricity.
• Prevent soil-erosion.
• Help to develop inland waterways and fishing.
• Provide recreation facilities.
• Provide water for domestic use and industries.
• To reclaim land for agriculture.
• Afforestation.

Question 32.
Explain the evolution of Paper money and the advantages of Banking money.
The metallic coins were unsafe to carry from one place to another. Therefore, traders began to carry the written documents issued by well known financiers as evidence of the quantity of money at their command. The written documents were not actual money, but were accepted and exchanged for money.

When such documents were issued by governments, they were called as ‘promissory notes’ or currency. Later on the central banks established by the governments started printing notes that had the guarantee of the government. This paper money became legal tender that is the legally acceptable money.

No individual can refuse the legal tender in that respective country. The legal tender is called as Rupee in India; Dollar in the USA; Pound in England; Euro in Europe; Yen in Japan; Yuan in China, etc.

Advantages of Banking money
As trade and commerce flourished bankers started issuing instruments for still easy transaction. Cheques, drafts, deposit (Credit) receipts etc., thus, came to be used as money. These help inn transactions as well as transfer of money between persons and places.

OR

What is ‘Public expenditure’ and ‘Public revenue’
Answer:
The expenditure incurred by public authorities like central, state and local governments to satisfy the collective social wants of the people is known as public expenditure. It is incurred on various activities for the welfare of people and also for the economic development, especially in developing countries.

‘Public Revenue:
‘Public Revenue’ is the income mobilized by the Government for purposes of financing Government activities.

Question 33.
“The number of saving bank account holders is increasing Give reasons.
Answer:

• Saving accounts encourages the habit of saving among the people who have an income
• Banks provide many facilities and services for saving account holders such as Electronic fund transfer, Gold Loans, etc.
• The money is safe in a bank account and prevents unnecessary expenses.
• If money is needed urgently, it can be withdrawn at a convenient ATM at their own convenient time.

OR

What are the vital characteristics required to be an entrepreneur.
Answer:
The characteristics of an Entrepreneur are :

• Creativity
• Dynamism
• Team building
• Problem solving
• Risk taking
• Commitment

V. Answer the following questions in Six sentences each : (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 34.
Describe Gandhiji’s early years in South Africa.
Answer:
Gandhiji went to Natal in South Africa to represent Dada Abdulla and Company in 1893.

Though Gandhi intended to be at Natal only three months, he ended up living in South Africa for twenty long years. He opposed the Apartheid policy that discriminated between dark skinned and pale skinned people.

He invested a new tool of protest called ‘Satyagraha’ and formulated its dos and don ts. Many South Africans take pride in declaring that “You sent us unformed Gandhi and We sent back the complete of Gandhi”.

Gandhi conceived the protest based on Sathyagraha and Non-Violence for the first time, He founded Natal Indian Congress. Gandhi published periodical ‘Indian Opinion’ for the first time to express his views and formulated the opinion of people in order to intensify the struggle further he started ‘Passive Resistance Organization’.

He started ‘Tolstoy Farm’ and Phoenix Farm’ to train the people in Sathyagraha and non-violent .peace struggles. Many people like Hermann Kallenbach, his wife Kasturba, Children lent their helping hand to Gandhiji. Finally, feeling pressured by the agitations led by Gandhiji, the government of South Africa, withdrew all restrictions and prohibitions against Indians and Black people.

Once, Gandhiji was traveling from Pretoria and Durban in first class railway compartment. He was thrown out of the compartment by a white officer. This made him to realize the hardships faced by Indians in the various places of South.

Africa. He himself has recorded that there were more hash discriminations in South Africa than in England. After leading a long struggle in South Africa, Gandhiji arrived back to India in 1915.

Question 35.
The service of B.R. Ambedkar in drafting the Indian Constitution is indispensable justify?
Answer:

• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the ‘Drafting Committee’
• He advocated equality in the constitution.
• He provided legal guarantees against untouchability in the constitution.
• The practice of untouchability is now crime because of Dr. Ambedkar’s input to the constitution.
• Ambedkar was instrumental in bringing modernity, rationality and retaining the Indian essence is the Indian constitution.

OR

Explain the major achievements of Nehru as the first Prime Minister of India.
Answer:
As the Prime Minister of India Pandit Nehru can be seen as the architect of Industrialization and modern India. Nehru became instrumental in the Integration of India which was achieved through the Home Minister of his cabinet, Vallabhabai Patel, the Tr6n Man of India’ who was successful in bringing all the princely states of India together.

He also laid foundation for the diverse culture of India by implementing ‘language based reorganization of states’ policy. He had firmly believed that ‘only complete industrialization can bring development’.

He sought to develop India through ‘Five Year Plans’. He sought to develop infrastructure and heavy industries through these five year plans. With the aim of mastering atomic energy, he laid the foundation for that under the leadership of H.J. Baba. On the external affairs front, India wanted to stay away from both the powerful blocs of cold war period and advocated Non Aligned Movement. He was instrumental in staying away from power politics by adhering to Panchasheela Principles. He died in 1964.

Question 36.
How did USA gain upperhand in the competition of stockpiling weapons?
Answer:
The Second World War caused utmost misery and death in the human history. It also changed the social political and economic changes m the world. In the place of League of Nations, United Nations Organization came into existence. The winning countries of the Second World War; England, China, USA, USSR and France became the permanent members of the UN Security Council. USSR and USA became powerful among rival countries.

This led to the Cold War. The colonies of Asia and Africa were able to achieve their independence. England, France and other European countries lost their most of colonies. The Indian Independence can be understood from this angle also. Since, USA used Nuclear Weapon in Japan, Nuclear Arm race started between the powerful countries.

Question 37.
Irrigation is very essential in India. Why?
Answer:
India is an agricultural country. Therefore it needs a regular and sufficient supply of water. Agriculture in India depends mainly on monsoon rainfall. It is seasonal, uncertain and unevenly distributed.

There are certain crops with require a larger and regular water supply, such as Rice, Sugarcane etc. Besides to increase the yield and production of crops requires regular supply of water. This can be provided only by irrigation which is very essential in India.

VI. 38. Draw outline map of India and mark the given by naming them (1 + 4 = 5)

A] 82 1/2° E Longitude
B] Kemmangundi
C] Mumbai High
D] Eastern Ghats
Answer:

Students can Download Karnataka SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers, Karnataka SSLC Social Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Syllabus SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet m your answer, booklet. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
The Third Carnatic War ended with the
A. Treaty of Pondicherry
B. Treaty of Madras
C. Treaty of Baris
D. Treaty of Aix-La-Chapelle
Answer:
C. Treaty of Baris

Question 2.
Gorbachev’s reforms of Perestroika and Glasnost resulted in
A. An era of world peace and soviet prosperity.
B. Conditions that helped lend to the break up of Soviet Union.
C. A successful transition to a command economy in Russia
D. Censorship of the news media in Russia.
Answer:
B. Conditions that helped lend to the break up of Soviet Union.

Question 3.
The administration of UNO and institutional functions is taken care by
A. General Assembly
B. Security council
C. Secretariat
D. General Secretary
Answer:
C. Secretariat

Question 4.
A mother’s work for the family is
A. Labour with pay
B. Labour without pay
C. Unorganised Labour
D. Organised Labour
Answer:
B. Labour without pay

Question 5.
The part of the country’s economy concerned with providing services.
A. Primary sector
B. Secondary sector
C. Tertiary sector
D. Unorganized sector
Answer:
C. Tertiary sector

Question 6.
Red soils are formed from
A. Under the conditions of high temperature and rainfall.
B. Decomposition of organic matter
C. Weathering of granite, gneiss and other crystalline rocks.
D. Sediments deposited by rivers
Answer:
C. Weathering of granite, gneiss and other crystalline rocks.

Question 7.
Which of the following comprise ‘Quantitative credit control measures’
A. Change in lending Margins
B. Moral suasion
C. Direct action
D. Bank rate policy
Answer:
D. Bank rate policy

Question 8.
Unemployment in developed countries is chiefly due to
A. Cheap imports from developing countries
B. Out – sourcing of white collar jobs
C. High wages for employees
D. Economic Depression
Answer:
B. Out – sourcing of white collar jobs

II. Answer the following questions in a sentence each: (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 9.
The expansion of British rule was easier in South India during the rule of Lord Wellesly. Why?
Answer:
Because the powerful states of Marathas and Mysore had become weak and the expansion in South India was easier.

Question 10.
Vernacular press act was major hurdle in the development of Indian Journalism, Why?
Answer:
Many National and Vernacular newspapers j of India wrote and published articles j encouraging Indian Nationalism while criticizing the English polices. This promoted the English to enact the ‘Vernacular Press Act in 1878, to J curb the independence of the independent press.

Question 11.
The strategy adopted by a country to regulate its relationship with other countries is known as?
Answer:
Foreign Policy.

Question 12.
An Indian household has employed a minor girl as house maid. The head the household can be arrested under which act of the Indian constitution.
Answer:
‘Child Adolescent Labour Prohibition and Regulation Act of 1986 (as amended in Jyly 2016.)

Question 13.
How does the physical features of an area affect the distribution of population?
Answer:
The mountain and hilly areas are sparsely populated such as the Northern and North Eastern hilly areas, whereas the Great plains of North India and the deltas have dense population.

Question 14.
Which is the most important agrobased industry.
Answer:
Cotton textile Industry.

Question 15.
What happens when public expenditure is higher than public expenditure of a country.
Answer:
It leads to the development of a country.

Question 16.
What is the main intention of consumer protection movement?
Answer:
Against exploitation by producer and traders.

III. Answer the following questions in three si/ four sentences each : (8 × 2 = 16)

Question 17.
Why did the British implement the ‘Policy of Association’ after the Mutiny of 1857.
Answer:

• They realized that ruling India was becoming a difficult proposition.
• They tried to earn the love and respect of Indians.
• They tried to involve Indians in the process of legislation.
• They understood that hosting to the grievances of Indians would end the violence. .
• So they implemented the ‘Policy of Association’.

Question 18.
Why did Gandhiji give the call for Quit India movement in 1942.
Answer:

• The British Government sent Stratford Cripps commission to India.
• The Commission proposed Dominion status to India.
• It called a meeting to draft a new constitution.
• It proposed the all states will have the liberty to join the Indian Federation or not.
• The congress opposed these recommendations at called for ‘Quit India’ movement.

Question 19.
What are the reasons for tensions between India and Pakistan?
Answer:
The reasons for tensions between India and Pakistan.

• Jammu and Kashmir issue
• River water sharing disputes.
• Pakistan based terrorist, attacks on Indian Parliament.
• In 2001, Mumbai attack in 2007 and Pathankot attack in 2016.

OR

List two features of economically backward countries?
Answer:

• Low per capita Income and widespread poverty.
• Population explosion and high dependency
• Massive unemployment.

Question 20.
Mention the challenges faced by unorganised sector workers.
Answer:

• Labourers of unorganised sector migrate in search for work.
• They have no social security such as housing, health benefits, water, food or equal opportunity to work,
• Unorganised sector workers are not covered by legal provisions.
• They are paid less than minimum wage act.
• Child labour is rampant in unorganised sector. It forsters child labour.
• Unorganised sector labourers face physical and mental exploitation of men, women and children. Women and children are subjected to sexual exploitation.

OR

What are the reasons of child trafficking.
Answer:

• Child labour, child marriage, school dropouts.
• Poverty
• Negligence in families
• Bonded labour
• Frequent migrations and shifting of residences
• Exposure to social media and internet
• Social inequalities, gender discrimination
• Lack of skills

Question 21.
Give the importance of coal in India.
Answer:

• Important source of power generation in India.
• Provides many by-products which are used as raw materials by industries.
• Ammonia, coal tar, coal gas, benzol, naptha and sulphur are the major by-products of coal.
• The by-products are used in chemical industries such as dyes, plastics, synthetic fibers, rubber.

Question 22.
How are different types of roads classified in India.
Answer:
Indian roads are classified on the basis of construction and maintainance.

• Golden quadrilateral and super highways.
• National Highways
• State highways
• District roads
• Village roads

Question 23.
What are the goals of public expenditure.

• Promote faster economic development
• Promote industry, trade and commerce
• Promote agricultural and rural development
• Promote balanced regional growth
• Build socio – economic overheads such as roadways, railways, dams; power etc
• Promote full – employment
• Maximize social welfare

Question 24.
How does globalization help to spread of local foods to other countries?
Answer:

• Globalisation creates international cultural exchange
• It spreads multi – culturalisation and better individual access to cultural diversity including food culture and diversity.
• It creates international travel and tourism.
• Hence it spreads local foods such as pizza and India food to other countries.

IV. Answer the following questions in six sentences each : (9 × 3 = 27)

Question 25.
Explain the method adopted by Rayanna to fight the British.
Answer:

• Rayanna was a brave soldier in the army of Chennamma of Kittur.
• Rani Chennamma along with Rayanna fought with the British against the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ and independence of Kittur.
• Chennamma was imprisoned.
• Rayanna organised an army of five hundred men.
• He conducted secret meetings on war strategies. He adopted guerrilla tactics to torment the British.
• He looted government treasury and taluk offices of the British.
• He was a terror to the locals who assisted the British and punished them.
• Rayanna was betrayed by Amaldhar Krishnaraya.
• He was captured and hanged.

OR

Illustrate the Judicial system formulated through East India Company.
Answer:

• Warren Hastings took over the the administration as Governor in 1772.
• Warren Hastings introduced two types of courts in each district they are:

a) Dewani Aadalat: A civil court, in which Hindus were dispensed Justice as per the Hindu Scriptures and the Muslims as per the Shariyat.
Civil courts came under the administration of European officers.

b) Fouzadaari Aadalat: A criminal court, which were under the court of Qajis and functioned under the supervision of European officers.
Gradually, the British Legal Procedures were introduced in the criminal courts.

Question 26.
How will you justify the Arya Samaj’s faith in Veda’s?
Answer:

• Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswathi.
• He believed that solutions to the various maladies of India were present in Vedas.
• So he declared ‘Back to Vedas’ and only Vedas were authentic.
• Arya Samaj encouraged Indians to study vedas and the ancient sacred texts and to preach them.
• They started ‘Shuddi movement’ to reconvert Indians who had converted to other religions.

Question 27.
Explain the significance of the Revolt of 1857.
Answer:

• The Mutiny of 1857 proved that Indian’s vehemently opposed the rule of the British over India.
• The British realized that until they gain the affection and belief of Indians, ruling India would be difficult.
• They realised that the concerns of Indians need to be urgently addressed.
• British decided to involve Indians in the process of legislation though the ‘Policy of Association’.
• The’Mutiny of 1857 proved to be a guide post of future struggles.
• It outlined the importance of seeking alternative channels to pursue future struggles against the British.

Question 28.
Explain the relationship between India and Russia.

• Both India and Russia have cordial. relationship.
• India has good bi-lateral relationship with Russia in the field of economics, politics and other areas.
• Russia opposed China’s invasion of India in 1962.
• Russia supported Tashkent Agreement between India and Pakistan in 1966.
• India and Russia signed agreement of 20 years for peace and co – operation in 1971.
• Russia supported the establishment of Bilal and Bhokora steel plants.
• Russia supported India to improve industries and science and technology.
• Russia extends support in India’s quest for permanent seat in UNO Security Council.

Question 29.
India has (taken many measures to eradicate untouchability. Justify.
Answer:

• Article 17 of Indian constitution prohibts a untouchability.
• The government has implemented ‘Untouchability Crime Act’ in 1955.
• The government has implemented ‘Civil Rights Protection Act’ in 1976 which makes practice of untouchability a crime.
• It has provided universal rights to vote and participation in elections to all.
• Provided reservation in education and employment for SC, ST and BC.
• The act of 1989, provides specific responsibilites for governments in eradication of untouchability.

Question 30.
Communication is important for development of a country. Substatiate.
Answer:
Importance

• It helps in quick transmission and discrimination of ideas, information and messages from person to person and place to place.
• Communication helps in creating awareness -among the people about government policies and programmes of development.
• It enables us to know about natural hazards and disasters,’weather forecasting etc. It helps in the progress of trade, industry, agriculture etc.
• It provides entertainment, day to day information of the world. Helps to maintain unity and integrity of the country.

OR

Explain the major earthquake zones in India.
Answer:
Distribution:
There are 3 major earthquake zones in India:
1. The Himalayan Zone: This zone include the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. It is a zone of maximum intensity. The earthquakes in this zone are basically due to plate tectonics i.e in Chamoli and Uttarakashi.

2. The Indo – Gangetic Zone: It lies to the south of the Himalayas. It comprises of Rajasthan, plains of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal. This zone is called “The zone of moderative intensity”.

3. The peninsular zone: It includes the Islands of Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicober and Rann of Kutch. Peninsular India had been considered as a stable landmass. Only a few earthquakes have been occured in this zone mostly in recent years. Therefore it is known as “Zone of minimum intensity”.

Question 31.
Sugarcane is an important commercial crop in India. Justify.
Answer:

• India has the largest area under sugarcane cultivation.
• India is second largest producer of Sugarcane, next to Brazil.
• Sugarcane is native to India.
• It is main source of sugar, jaggery and khandasari.
• Sugarcane is grown in Uttarpradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 32.
Explain the major dis-advantages of Globalization.
Answer:

• Unemployment due to  out sourcing of jobs to developing countries.
• Child labour and slavery
• Fierce – competition leading to unethical business practice.
• Environmental degradation.
• Cultivation of habits of consuming junk food, lead to life style diseases like obesity etc.
• Spread of fatal diseases like AIDS, Dengue, SARS etc.
• Depletion of natural resources.

OR

Explain the major objectives of consumer Act.
Answer:

• Safety and quality
• Curbing production and sale of dangerous goods.
• Prevention of Trade malpractices
• Supervision on quality, weights, measures and price.
• Compensating consumers for defective goods and services.
• Creating consumer awareness.

Question 33.
Explain Goods and Services Tax (GST).
Answer:

• GST is comprehensive indirect tax on manufacture, sale and consumption of goods and services.
• It replaced indirect taxes levied by union and state Governments.
• It is collected at each stage of sale or purchase of goods and services.
• It avoids double taxation.
• It is easier to administrate and enforce.
• It provides faster and free movement of goods and services, through less paper work.

OR

How to achieve gender equality?
Answer:
The steps to achieve gender equality are

• To provide social, economic, educational and political equality to women.
• Equality of freedom and opportunities to both men and women
• To increase the sex ratio.
• Compulsory free education for girl child.
• To provide reservations for women in all spheres of life
• Improvement of health of women and girl- child.
• Promote participation of women in economic activities.
• Empower women by enacting laws beneficial to their welfare.

V. Answer the following questions in Six sentences each : (4 × 4= 16)

Question 34.
The accession of Jammu and Kashmir is different from all other accersions Substatiate.
Answer:

• King Hari Singh of Kashmir remained independent after August 1947.
• Pakistan sent tribal terrorists to invade Kashmir.
• Pakistan feared Kashmir would join India.
• India could not help Harisingh as Kashmir was not a part of India.
• So Harisingh joined India in October 1947,
• Indian Army were successful in driving away the tribal warriors.
• North – East Kashmir still remains with Pakistan as Pakistan occupied Kashmir (POK).

Question 35.
How did USA gain upper hand in the competition of stockpiling weapons?
Answer:
The Second World War caused utmost misery and death in the human history. It also changed the social political and economic changes in the world. In the place of League of Nations, United Nations Organization came into existence. The winning countries of the Second World War; England, China, USA, USSR and France became the. permanent members of the UN Security Council.

USSR and USA became powerful among rival countries. This led to the Cold War. The colonies of Asia and Africa were able to achieve their independence. England, France and other European countries lost their most of colonies. The Indian Independence can be understood from this angle also. Since, USA used Nuclear Weapon in Japan, Nuclear Arm race started between the powerful countries.

Question 36.
What are the measures needed for the eradication of unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment is a growing problem in India. About 25 % of Indian population is composed of youths who can be profitably engaged in the economical development of India

The Government has to take measures to generate employment for them. Steps have to be taken to improve the skill level of the Job seekers so that they can have better access to employment.

More over, it is important for the government to encourage the young educated people to be self employed. The government should provide easy and interest free loans and subsidy to enable people to engage in self employment.

A huge and friendly market should be established to sell the goods and products generated through self employment to compete n the globalised markets.

The quality of education should be improved and upgraded periodically to match the current requirement of industries and business. Skill development, practical knowledge and training should be made compulsory in schools and colleges to empower them to seek employment.

Rural youth should be encouraged to develop agriculture based industries m rural areas so that they do not have to migrate to cities in search of employment.

Question 37.
How can forests be conserved?
Answer:

• Control of deforestation.
• Restriction of grazing.
• Control of forest insects and diseases.
• Prevention of encroachments on forests.
• Control of forest fires.
• Controlling illegal cutting of trees.
• Scientific cutting of trees.
• Legislation to check deforestation.
• Encourage afforestation.
• Creating awareness among the people about importance of forests.

VI. 38. Draw outline map of India and mark the given by naming them (1 + 4 = 5)
A] Satpura Range
B] Digboi
C] Bengaluru
D] Kochi
Answer:

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